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user100 [1]
2 years ago
10

A financial services firm routinely processes a large volume of account change requests. a lean six sigma team wants to understa

nd the resources required to maintain a maximum target cycle time of 16 hours. when demand fluctuates, personnel can be reassigned temporarily to increase the rate of processing. if the normal processing rate is 2 per minute, what should the maximum items in process (queue) before reassigning resources?
Business
1 answer:
Inessa [10]2 years ago
8 0

<u>The answer is "1920".</u>


This is how we calculate this;

time = 16 hours

normal processing rate = 2 per minute

so,

Things-in-Process (Queue) = 16 hours x (2 Items/Minute x 60 Minutes)

<u>= 1920</u>

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Having the skill to coordinate different people and different tasks to work towards one goal is necessary for which of the follo
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

C. Manager

Explanation:

The job of a manager is to organize all the units in the business for proper functioning

4 0
2 years ago
“Gambler fallacy” is the Believe that if people keep gambling they will eventually win big
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The answer is False

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6 0
2 years ago
A company reported net income of $6 million. During the year the average number of common shares outstanding was 3 million. The
malfutka [58]

Answer:

The EPS is approximately:

it can be any of them:

  • if preferred dividends = $4,800,000, then EPS = $0.40 (option A)
  • if preferred dividends = $720,000, then EPS = $1.76 (option B)
  • if preferred dividends = $0, then EPS = $2 (option D)

EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / outstanding shares = ($6,000,000 - preferred dividends) / 3,000,000 shares

The Price/Earnings ratio is approximately:

  • if EPS = $0.40, then PE ratio = 12.5 (option D)
  • if EPS = $1.76, then PE ratio = 2.84 (option C)
  • if EPS = $2, then PE ratio = 2.5 (option B)

Price/earnings (PE) ratio = share price / EPS = $5 / EPS

EPS cannot be $1.80, since PE ratio = 2.78 and that is not an option.

Some companies have a higher share price for the same level of earnings. Why?

Some stocks like Amazon have a very low EPS, form any years its EPS was very low bu its stock price kept rising. The stock price is based mostly on potential future earnings, not current earnings. A company that is being liquidated might have a high EPS, but a very low stock price since it will stop operating soon.  

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following would most likely cause a budget surplus for government?
kupik [55]
The answer to this answer is B.lower spending
Lower spending means that the government used less money to be allocated into the government programs (such as welfares, infrastructure, etc)
By doing this, the government will have larger chunk of the budget at the end of the fiscal year, which cause a budget surplus for the governemnt
8 0
3 years ago
Assume Shamrock estimates bad debts based on 5% of the Accounts Receivables ending balance (as of Dec. 31, 20x2). Determine Bad
a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

Bad Debt Expense for 20x2 is $50,245

Explanation:

Note: The full question is attached as picture below

Ending balance = Beginning balance + Sales on account or credit sales - Cash collected - Uncollected accounts

Beginning balance of Accounts receivable (given) = $850000

Credit sales in 20X2 = 80% * $3125000 = $2500000

Cash collections (given) = $2400000

Uncollectible accounts (given) = $52100

Ending balance = $850000 + $2500000 - $2400000 - $52100 = $897900

Allowance required to be made for 20X2 = 5% of Accounts receivables ending balance on 20X2  = 5% * $897900 = $44895

First we will write off uncollectible accounts of $52100 from the beginning balance of allowance for uncollectible accounts. (Beginning balance of allowance for doubtful accounts = $46750 ).

Difference = Beginning balance of allowance account - Uncollectible accounts = $46750 - $52100 = - $5350

It means that there is a shortfall of $5350 in the allowance for doubtful accounts. And, also a total of $44895 should be there in the credit of Allowance for doubtful accounts at the end of 20X2.  Allowance needed in 20X2 = $44895 + $5350 = $50,245 . So, the Bad debt expense for 20X2 is $50,245.

7 0
3 years ago
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