Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
40% is equal to 40/100
He made 40% of 15 shots so you miltiply 15 by 40/100 which is equal to 6.
Answer:
Term payback = 15 yr = $331527.6 20 yr = $394389.65 rounded up by 0.002. Shows 15 yr is $62862.05 less as result of return 5 yrs earlier.
Step-by-step explanation:
20 yr = $1643.29 at 105% = 82.1645 paid x 12 x 20 = 19719.48 interest + 1561.1257 to loan x 12 x 20 = 374670.168 total with Int at 5%= 394389.648
15 yr=$1841.82.= $1841.82 - 73.6728= 1768.1472 to loan p/m = 20 yr 318266.496 + interest of 73.6728 = 13261.104 total with interest at 4%=331527.6
There would be four sides, three around and the bottom base <span />
Answer:
73.6
61.824
.2776
2.3
1.342
.4129
*note* I had trouble reading the standard deviation of the second part, so if it's not 3 then leave a comment and i will fix it*
Step-by-step explanation:
1.)
the mean would be something like 460*.16= 73.6
The variance should be 460*.16(1-.16)= 61.824 which means the standard deviation is √61.824= 7.863
for p to be less than .15 it would have to be less than .15*460= 69
(69-73.6)/7.863= -.59 which has a probability of .2776
2.)
the mean is 2.3
I am not sure if the standard deviation is 3 or .3 (picture is kind of blurry)
I am thinking that it's three which would mean that the standard deviation would be √(3²*(1/5))= 1.342
(2-2.3)/1.342= -.22 = .4129
Multiple 5x70 to get 350. Which makes the equation 350=5x and then you have to divide both sides by 5 to get x by itself. so 5x/5 and 350/5 makes x=70
