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andrezito [222]
3 years ago
10

Production 54,000 units 60,000 units Machine-hours 985 hours 1,800 hours Fixed overhead costs for September $53,400 $90,000 The

fixed-overhead budgeted cost-allocation rate (BR) $50.00 per machine-hour. Standard quantity per 1 unit (SQ) (1,800m/h: 60,000)= 0.03m/h What is the fixed overhead production-volume variance? A. $9,000 F B. $81,000 U C. $81,000F D. $9,000 U
Business
1 answer:
Juli2301 [7.4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The fixed overhead production-volume variance is $9,000 U

Explanation:

In this question, we are tasked with calculating the fixed overhead production-volume variance.

We start by calculating the fixed overhead applied to production.

mathematically that is equal to : 54,000 * 0.03 * 50 = 81,000

The budgeted fixed overhead = 90,000

Mathematically,

Fixed overhead production-volume variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - fixed overhead applied to production = 90,000 - 81,000 = $9,000 U

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Vinny and Sandra have just had their first baby, and need to make a decision about how to handle work and child‑care responsibil
mr_godi [17]

Answer:

A. 600

B. 0

C. 0

D. -1100

E. -1000

Explanation:

For part A you are asked to find the change in GDP with the addition of paying a babysitter $600. The GDP beforehand was the total income from both Vinny and Sandra which is $1200 + $1000 = $2200. For these questions, you are being asked to find a change in GDP which would simply be the addition of $600. Similiary, for part B there is no change in GDP because they do not pay Sandra's mother, so the change in GDP is 0. For part C, since the payments are not reported, there is no change in GDP. Part C can be thought of as a reference to the shadow market and GDP from the shadow market is not recorded. Part D has a negative 1100 because they each go back to work part-time, Vinnie earning $500 per week and Sandra earning $600. The change in GDP would be negative because they are losing 1100 in order to care for a new child. For part E, Vinnie gives up all his income which would normally amount to $1000 per week. The change in GDP is therefore negative.

6 0
3 years ago
A 3-year annual coupon bond has coupons of $12 per year starting one year from now and matures in 3 years for the amount $100. T
Ganezh [65]

Answer: Macaulay Duration = 2.6908154485 = 2.69

Explanation:

Macaulay Duration = Sum of Cash flows Present Value/ current bond price

Cash flows: year 1 = $12

Cash flows: year 2 = 12

Cash flows: year 3 = 100 + 12 = 112

Sum of Cash Flow PV = (1×12÷ (1.118)^1) + (2×12÷ (1.118)^2) +(3×112÷(1.118)^3)

Sum of Cash Flow PV = 270.37857712

Current Bond Price or Value = Face Value/ (1+r)^n + PV of Annuity

Current Bond Price or Value = 1000/ (1.118)^3 + (30×(1 - (1+0.118)^-3)/0.118

Current Bond Price or Value  = 100.48202201

Macaulay Duration = 270.37857712 ÷ 100.48202201

Macaulay Duration = 2.6908154485 = 2.69

4 0
3 years ago
The Pan American Bottling Co. is considering the purchase of a new machine that would increase the speed of bottling and save mo
lys-0071 [83]

Answer:

IRR= R1+[NPV1(R2-R1)%/(NPV1-NPV2)]

      =28%+[ 549 x (29-28)%/(549-(-763)]

       =28% +[5.49/1312]

         =28% +0.418

          =28.41%

As per both NPV and IRR the project is acceptable

Reason:

NPV is positive and IRR is greater than cost of capital

Explanation:

See the attached pictures for detailed explanation.

6 0
3 years ago
Previn Brothers Inc. purchased land at a price of $26300. Closing costs were $1300. An old building was removed at a cost of $10
Aloiza [94]

Answer:

$38,000

Explanation:

The computation of the cost of the land is shown below:

= Purchase price of land + closing cost + removal cost of an old building

= $26,300 + $1,300 + $10,400

= $38,000

In order to find out the cost of the land, we simply added the purchase value of land, its closing cost and the removal cost of an old building

3 0
3 years ago
Aquaguard manufactures three models of water purifiers in three separate plants at Taiwan. These plants serve the demand in Euro
Zanzabum

Answer:

Aquaguard may choose any of the  two models to minimize the production variability in the new plant.

Explanation:

Model 1: Mean = 1000, Standard Deviation(SD) = 300

Model 2: Mean = 1000, SD = 300

Model 3: Mean = 1000, SD = 300

Coefficient of variation for model 1

C.V = ( SD ÷ Mean) × 100

= ( 300 ÷ 1000 ) × 100

= 30 %

Coefficient of variation for model 2

= ( 300 ÷ 1000 ) × 100

= 30 %

Coefficient of variation for model 3

= ( 300 ÷ 1000 ) × 100

= 30 %

 We conclude that all the models have same effect .

5 0
3 years ago
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