Answer:
We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.
We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.
Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.
Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have 
number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.
Answer:
option B and C
Step-by-step explanation:
Lets check each function
Lets simplify 
factor the numerator
Cancel out x+5 so we are left with x-5
When x=-5 then f(x) = x-5= -5-5 = -10
To make the function continuous at x=-5 the value of f(x) should be -10
So option B is correct
Now we check with option C and D
Lets simplify 
factor the numerator
Cancel out x+5 , so we are left with x+5
When x=-5 then f(x) = x+5= -5+5 = 0
To make the function continuous at x=-5 the value of f(x) should be 0
So option C is correct
56 divided by 7 = 8
8 multiplied by 6
=48
Answer:
3/10
Step-by-step explanation:
Bonnie has completed 0.5 + 0.2 = 0.7 of her art project. 1 - 0.7 = 0.3 of her art project remains to be completed.
_____
1/2 = 5/10 = 0.5
1/5 = 2/10 = 0.2
Answer:
36
Step-by-step explanation:
6^2=36
