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3 years ago

11

g According to the CAPM, what is the expected rate of return for a stock with a beta of 1.2. when the risk-free rate is 6% and t

he market rate of return is 12%

1 answer:

lys-0071 [83]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

20.40%

Explanation:

According to CAPM :

expected rate of return = risk free rate + (beta x market rate of return)

6% + (1.2 x 12%) = 20.40%

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The most obvious benefit of specialization and trade is that they allow us to

Kipish [7]

The most obvious benefit of specialization and trade is that they allow us to: <span>Consume more goods than we otherwise would be able to consume
When we do specialization, we could produce the goods that provide competitive advantage for us so we can produce that goods in a huge amount.
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4 years ago

"during its first year of business, xyz inc. purchased $1,600 of supplies. by the end of the year, only $500 of supplies remain

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The correct answer is $500.

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3 years ago

May, Inc. had the following transactions in 2019, its first year of operations: Issued 22,000 shares of common stock. The stock

tatuchka [14]

Answer:

The amount of paid-in capital $

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3 years ago

Winners of the Georgia Lotto drawing are given the choice of receiving the winning amount divided equally over 2222 years or as

Wewaii [24]

Answer:

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Explanation:

The formula we will us to calculate the cash option payout for formula for calculating the present value (PV) .

Present value (PV) can simply be described as the current value of a future amount or future stream of cash flows given a certain return rate.

To calculate the PV of a future cash flow, we will discount it by using the discount rate.

The formula is provided as follows:

PV = FV/(1 + r)^n ............................................ (1)

Where,

PV = Present Value = ?

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FV = annual future value = $863,636.36

n = number of years = 2222 years

Note that the annual future value calculated by diving the $1919 million by 2222 years and this give us $863,636.36 (i.e. 1,919,000,000 ÷ 2222 = $863,636.36).

Substituting the figures above into equation (1), we obtain:

PV = 863,636.36/(1 + 0.66)^2222

= 863,636.36/(1.66)^2222

= 863,636.36/∞

PV = 0

This is because, the division of any number by infinity is equal to zero. And if we multiply by zero by 2222, it will still give us zero PV.

Therefore, the cash option payout will be zero. It is better the winner take the option of collecting $863,636.36.

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