The Treaty of Paris of 1763 was very much significant for the Americans as it formally ended the American Revolutionary War. In the terms of the treaty, France gave up all its territories in mainland North America, effectively ending any foreign military threat to the British colonies there.
After the treaty, The British acknowledged the independence of the United States and the colonial empire of Great Britain was destroyed in North America.
It was signed by Jimmy Carter.
The reason why the indulgences paid to the Catholic Church sparked the Protestant Reformation was that many religious scholars felt that indulgences went against the Words of the Bible.
<h3>How did indulgences lead to the Protestant Reformation?</h3>
Indulgences annoyed several Christian scholars such as Martin Luther who argued that paying for sins to be forgiven was against the word of the Gospel.
As a result, new denominations in Christianity broke out and this led to the period known as the Protestant Reformation.
Find out more on the Protestant Reformation at brainly.com/question/10042017
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I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
I would also say C. movement of people to urban areas is the correct answer.
Industrialization meant that the country was becoming more and more technologically advanced. There were new factories, which meant there were new job positions. So obviously people wanted to come to the city in order to pursue a career.
