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statuscvo [17]
3 years ago
13

When the selling division in an internal transfer has unsatisfied demand from outside customers for the product that is being tr

ansferred, then the lowest acceptable transfer price as far as the selling division is concerned is: A. variable cost of producing a unit of product. B. the full absorption cost of producing a unit of product. C. the market price charged to outside customers, less costs saved by transferring internally. D. the amount that the purchasing division would have to pay an outside seller to acquire a similar product for its use.
Business
1 answer:
torisob [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C. the market price charged to outside customers, less costs saved by transferring internally.

Explanation:

Divisional manager performance is evaluated separately from one department to another. The Selling department need a minimum price equivalent to price the items fetch in<em> market transaction</em> to raise performance.

However <em>goal congruence </em>has to be met, therefore the price must exclude savings as a result of Internal transfer for the interest of the firm as a whole.

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Answer:

The answer is B. -97.7.

Explanation:

As the question gives us the spot rate, the interest rates of two countries, We can apply the covered interest parity to calculate the 90-day forward exchange rate JPY/AUD from which 90-day forward points can be derived.

F = S x ( 1+ Rjpy) / ( 1+ Raud); in which Rjpy denoted as JPY interest rate ( 0.15% per annum) while Raud is AUD interest rate ( 4.95% per annum).

F = 82.42 x (1+ 0.15% x 90/360) / ( 1 + 4.95% x 90/360) = 81.443

=> The 90-day forward points is : 100 x ( F-S) = 100 x ( 81.443 - 82.42) = -97.7

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