Answer:
do somthing relaxing or daring
Explanation:
Evidence shows that there are certain metals in some vaccines that people who have an allergy to metals can react, which can affect them neurologically. (i’m autistic myself and was affected by a vaccine. i hope this helps.)
Answer:
Stages:
GLYCOLYSIS
LINK REACTION
KREB'S CYCLE.
OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION
ANALYSIS
4 ATPs are produced in glycosis ;because of the imputs of 2ATPS ,Net ATPs is 2ATPs.
Link reaction produced no ATP.
Krebs Cycle produced 2ATPs/One molecule of glucose.
ETC of Oxidative phosphorylation
Gives 18 ATPs.
So the NET ATPs is 32.
Explanation:
The choices are:
a. The fetus undergoes the most rapid weight gain during the first trimester.
b. The fetus takes an average of 30 weeks to mature after conception.
c. Fetal organ systems develop at a steady rate throughout pregnancy.
d. To ensure proper growth, a fertilized egg must implant in the wall of the uterus.
Answer:
The answer is letter d, To ensure proper growth, a fertilized egg must implant in the wall of the uterus.
Explanation:
The fetal development process starts with the conception and implantation. <em>Conception</em><u> is the process by which the male's sperm meets with the woman's egg cell in order to be fertilize</u>d. Once the egg is fertilized, it has to be implanted in the woman's uterus. Once it adheres to the wall, the fertilized egg cell (embryo) now becomes known as a<em> "blastocyst."</em> This is a very essential stage for fetal development because this allows the embryo to receive proper nutrients from its mother.
Implantation occurs at least 6 to 9 days after the egg is fertilized. A woman may experience the following symptoms:<em> fatigue, breast tenderness, increased urination, food cravings, morning sickness, mood swings, headaches, etc.</em>
The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
During a routine follow-up appointment for well-controlled dyslipidemia, a 26-year-old man is evaluated for a lump in his right groin. He first noted the lump one evening approximately 2 months ago after he helped his fiancé move into a new apartment. The lump was moderately uncomfortable, with pain concentrated in the groin and upper, inner aspect of his right thigh. The mass and discomfort subsided by the next morning, but he has had recurrence of mild to moderate pain during the week, but he is generally asymptomatic in the morning before going to work at his job at a factory where he stands most of the day. He has no prior surgical history, and his medical history is otherwise unremarkable. On physical examination, a soft, reducible mass consistent with a hernia is palpated in the right groin; the left groin appears normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
a. Use of a truss to compress the hernia and keep it from protruding
b. Urgent inguinal hernia repair because of a high risk for incarceration
c. Ultrasound examination of the groin to confirm the presence of a hernia
d. Elective open inguinal hernia repair at the patient's convenience
e. Watchful waiting because his symptoms consistently resolve with rest
Answer:
On the basis of the symptoms, the patient is suffering from indirect inguinal hernia. The abdominal cavity protrude in this medical condition and marked by excessive pain.
The management can be done by the surgery or by the elective open inguinal hernia repair process. This can only be done according to the patient convenience. The conditions needs to be corrected as it might cause severe problem in the body.
