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Firdavs [7]
3 years ago
9

Vivian goes to an auction and sees a rare antique lamp that is an identical match to one she already has. At the proper time she

bids on the lamp and is the highest bidder. Even though she is the highest bidder, the auctioneer refuses to accept her bid and withdraws the lamp from the auction. Can the auctioneer do that?
a.
Unless otherwise stated, the auctioneer had the right to withdraw the item before the fall of the hammer.
b.
Most auctions are without reserve and therefore the auctioneer cannot withdraw the lamp.
c.
Generally, the auctioneer is the offeror and the bidders are the offerees so there is a contract and Vivian will get the lamp.
d.
Generally, the auctioneer must sell to the highest bidder. Vivian will get the lamp.
Business
1 answer:
BigorU [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Any auction is either “with reserve” or “without reserve.” And the answer how an auctioneer handles higher bids rests with the type of auction being conducted.

In a with reserve auction, the auctioneer may refuse a higher bid (reserve the right to refuse …) where in a without reserve auction, any higher bid must be accepted.

Said another way, in a with reserve auction, the auctioneer is not bound to sell to the highest bidder. In essence, the next higher increment represents the minimum bid.

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In the first couple of decades of the 20th century, most people
melisa1 [442]
There was a rise in human population.
3 0
3 years ago
Carrying Amount $120,000 Selling Price $80,000 Costs of Disposal $5,000 Expected Future Cash Flows $90,000 Present Value of expe
frez [133]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

Under IAS 36, an asset is said to be impaired where the carrying amount is more than the recoverable amount.

The recoverable amount is the higher of the fair value less cost to sell or the value in use which is the present value of the expected future cashflow.

Given that;

Carrying Amount = $120,000

Selling Price = $80,000

Costs of Disposal = $5,000

Hence fair value less cost to sell = $80,000 - $5,000 = $75,000  

Expected Future Cash Flows = $90,000

Present Value of expected future cash flows = $85,000 ( this is the value in use)

Recoverable amount = $85,000 (since the value in use is higher that the fair value less cost to sell)

This is lower than the carrying amount hence the asset is impaired.

Impairment = $120,000 - $85,000

= $35,000

8 0
3 years ago
The only producer of chocolate bunnies in the world, Choco's Bunny Company, recently expanded its production capacity from 1,000
Sophie [7]

Answer:

19.82%

Explanation:

Midpoint method = Q2 - Q1 / [(Q2 + Q1) / 2] / P2 - P1 / [(P2+P1) / 2]

3.33 = 2000 - 1000 / [(2000 + 1000) / 2] / P2 - P1 / [(P2+P1)/2]

3.33 = 0.66 / (P2 - P1) / [(P2+P1)/2]

By cross multiplying we have

0.66 = 3.33 [ (P2 - P1) / [(P2+P1)/2]

divide both sides by 3.33

19.82% = The mid point change in price.

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are characteristics of a perpetuity?
QveST [7]

Answer:

B. The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows.

C. The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.

Explanation:

A Perpetuity is a financial instrument that pays the holder forever or in perpetuity. For example, a bank paying you $800 per year for ever because you invested $40,000.

There are certain characteristics

Option B

The Perpetuity like most financial Securities has its value based on the underlying cashflows that it can accumulate. This means that it's value is based on the present value of it's future cashflow so the other the cash payments, the higher the present value.

Option C.

As the discounted cashflows in the nearer future will be discounted less by the discount rate as opposed to the cash flows further in future, the cashflows nearer to the present in time will contribute more to the Perpetuity than the cashflows further in time.

For example using that first example, $800 per year at a rate of 5% will be discounted to $762 in the first year but in year 10 will be discounted to $491.

7 0
3 years ago
2. On January 2, 2017, heavy equipment costing $800,000 was purchased. The equipment had a life of 5 years and no salvage value.
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

The solution to the given problem is done below.

Explanation:

(a)            Depreciation

            for Financial              Depreciation for Temporary

Year         Reporting Purposes           Tax Purposes            Difference

2017           $160,000                          $264,000          (104,000)

2018           $160,000                          $360,000          (200,000)

2019           $160,000                           $120,000            40,000

2020           $160,000                           $56,000            104,000

2021                  $160,000                                      0                        $160,000

                         $800,000                            $800,000                   0

(b)                        2018       2019          2020         2021           Total  

Future taxable

amounts:

Depreciation     $(200,000)      $40,000      104,000    $160,000    $104,000

Deferred tax liability: $104,000 × 40% = $41,600 at the end of 2017.

8 0
3 years ago
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