Answer:
C. A risk averse investor would choose the economy in which stock returns are independent because risk can be diversified away in a large portfolio.
Explanation:
if stock prices move together, (positive correlation), the volatility of the portfolio will be higher. Higher volatility means higher risk. This is the case with the first economy.
In the second economy however, the stocks are independent of each other meaning there is zero correlation between stocks and hence the portfolio volatility will be much lesser.
As a risk-averse investor you will prefer the portfolio with lower volatility for the same expected return.
Answer: The answer is: "Inflation benefited Gabriela because she repaid the loan with money that was worth less than expected." I took the test. I hope this helps!
Answer:
6.1 y
Explanation:
Diamond Company
New equipment÷(Annual net income +Depreciation expense)
New equipment$1,400,000
Annual net income $90,000
Depreciation expense $140,000
$1,400,000 ÷ ($90,000 + $140,000)
=$1,400,000÷$230,000
= 6.1 y
Therefore the cash payback period will be 6.1 years
Answer:
9.04%
Explanation:
The computation of firm's WACC is shown below:-
MV of equity = Price of equity × Number of shares outstanding
= $68 × 12,200
= $829,600
MV of Bond = Par value × bonds outstanding × Percentage of par
= $1,000 × 370 × 0.951
= $351,870
MV of firm = MV of Equity + MV of Bond
= $829,600 + $351,870
= $1,181,470
After tax cost of debt = Cost of debt × (1 - Tax rate)
After tax cost of debt = 5.99 × (1 - 0.39)
= 3.6539
Weight of equity = MV of Equity ÷ MV of firm
= $829,600 ÷ $1,181,470
=0.7022
Weight of debt = MV of Bond ÷ MV of firm
= $351,870 ÷ $1,181,470
= 0.2978
WACC = After tax cost of debt × Weight of debt + Cost of equity × Weight of equity
= 3.65 × 0.2978 + 11.33% × 0.7022
= 9.04%
The prices will ultimately decrease in a competitive industrial environment.
