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lorasvet [3.4K]
3 years ago
8

Beth is a retired teacher who lives in dallas and does some consulting work for extra cash. at a wage of $40 per hour, she is wi

lling to work 7 hours per week. at $50 per hour, she is willing to work 10 hours per week. using the midpoint method, the elasticity of beth's labor supply between the wages of $40 and $50 per hour is approximately , which means that beth's supply of labor over this wage range is .
Business
1 answer:
Ipatiy [6.2K]3 years ago
4 0
Price Elasticity of Supply. The price elasticity of supply is calculated as the percentage change in quantity divided by the percentage change in price.
 Using the Midpoint Method
 PES = ((Q2-Q1) / ((Q2 + Q1) / 2)) / ((P2-P1) / ((P2 + P1) / 2))
 PES = (((10) - (7)) / (((10) + (7)) / 2)) / (((50) - (40)) / (((50) + (40)) / 2))
 PES = 1.59
 the elasticity of beth's labor supply between the wages of $ 40 and $ 50 per hour is approximately 1.59
 In this case, to 1% rise in price causes an increase in quantity supplied of 1.59%
 answer:
 the elasticity of beth's labor supply between the wages of $ 40 and $ 50 per hour is approximately 1.59
 In this case, to 1% rise in price causes an increase in quantity supplied of 1.59%
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Answer: Option C

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In the given case, the business of Ben and Chris slowed down due to the economic breakdown in the country. These factors are inescapable and affect all the businesses in the economy.

Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is C.

4 0
3 years ago
Chuck offers $240,000 for a house. The seller turns down the offer but says she will sell the house for $260,000. However, Chuck
qaws [65]

Answer:

Chuck must be less than $260,000

Explanation:

The economic decision rule is: Do it if that marginal benefit exceeds the marginal cost and Since Chuck was unwilling to purchase the house at $260,000, we can deduce that the marginal benefit of purchasing the house must be less than $260,000 due to the fact that the seller turns down the offer but says she will sell the house for $260,000.

6 0
3 years ago
Dudley Transport Company divides its operations into four divisions. A recent income statement for its West Division follows. DU
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Answer:

Companywide income would increase by $6,000 if West Division is eliminated.

Explanation:

The amount by which the companywide income will increase or decrease if West Division is eliminated can be determined by comparing Revenue with avoidable cost.

Avoidable cost refers to the cost that will be eliminated or not incurred if a firm decides to change the course of a business.

In this question, avoidable cost is simply the cost or expenses that will be eliminated if West Division is eliminated.

Among all the expenses in the question, only Companywide facility-sustaining costs which is $78,000 cannot be eliminated if West Division is eliminated.

Therefore, avoidable cost can be calculated as follows:

Avoidable cost = Salaries for drivers + Fuel expenses + Insurance + Division-level facility-sustaining costs = 210,000 + 30,000 + 42,000 + 24,000 = $306,000

Since, Revenue = $300,000

Decision rule:

1. If revenue is greater than avoidable cost, we have a decrease in income. Therefore, the division should not be eliminated.

2. If revenue is less than avoidable cost, we have an increase in income. Therefore, the division should be eliminated.

Since the revenue of $300,000 is less than the avoidable cost of $306,000, it implies we have an increase in income based on the decision rule 2. The increase in income is calculated as follows:

Increase in income if West Division is eliminated = Avoidable cost – Revenue = $306,000 - $300,000 = $6,000

Therefore, companywide income would increase by $6,000 if West Division is eliminated

Since there would be an increase in income of $6,000, West Division should therefore be eliminated.

4 0
3 years ago
Explain global business planning system in detail
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Explanation:

in global business obligation plan more ideas

8 0
3 years ago
g Your financial advisor offers you two different investment options. Plan A offers a $17,000 annual payment, in perpetuity. Pla
motikmotik

Answer:

4.76%

Explanation:

The requirement in this question is determining the discount rate which gives the same present value in both cases since discount rates discount future cash flows to present value terms.

PV of a pertuity=annual cash flow/discount rate

PV of a pertuity=$17,000/r

PV of ordinary annuity=annual cash flow*(1-(1+r)^-n/r

PV of ordinary annuity=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

$17,000/r=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r

multiply boths side by r

17000=30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18

divide both sides by 30000

17000/30000=1-(1+r)^-18

0.566666667=1-(1+r)^-18

by rearraging the equation we have the below

(1+r)^-18=1-0.566666667

(1+r)^-18=0.433333333

divide indices on both sides by -18

1+r=(0.433333333)^(1/-18)

1+r=1.047554315

r=1.047554315-1

r=4.76%

5 0
2 years ago
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