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Sedbober [7]
3 years ago
5

Is 120% less than, more than or equal to 1

Mathematics
1 answer:
kati45 [8]3 years ago
6 0
120% is the same as 120/100

Divide 120 with 100

120/100 = 1.2

1.2 > 1 ∴ 120% is 'more than' 1


hope this helps
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Answer:

Hi, so unfortunately just knowing the percentages is not enough information to figure out the number of people, let alone females.

Were there problems before this one that provided you with some additional numbers? If so, that is what you need to solve this one.  

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Simplify the expression z2-z(z+3)+3z
Maslowich
<span>z2-z(z+3)+3z
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The Center for Medicare and Medical Services reported that there were 295,000 appeals for hospitalization and other Part A Medic
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

(a) 0.00605

(b) 0.0403

(c) 0.9536

(d) 0.98809

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that 40% of first-round appeals were successful (The Wall Street Journal, October 22, 2012) and suppose ten first-round appeals have just been received by a Medicare appeals office.

This situation can be represented through Binomial distribution as;

P(X=r)= \binom{n}{r}p^{r}(1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,....

where,  n = number of trials (samples) taken = 10

            r = number of success

            p = probability of success which in our question is % of first-round

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So, here X ~ Binom(n=10,p=0.40)

(a) Probability that none of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 0)

     P(X = 0) = \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0}

                   = 1*0.6^{10} = 0.00605

(b) Probability that exactly one of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 1)

     P(X = 1) = \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                  = 10*0.4^{1} *0.6^{10-1} = 0.0403

(c) Probability that at least two of the appeals will be successful = P(X>=2)

    P(X >= 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1)

                     = 1 - \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0} - \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                     = 1 - 0.00605 - 0.0403 = 0.9536

(d) Probability that more than half of the appeals will be successful =             P(X > 0.5)

  For this probability we will convert our distribution into normal such that;

   X ~ N(\mu = n*p=4,\sigma^{2}= n*p*q = 2.4)

  and standard normal z has distribution as;

      Z = \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} ~ N(0,1)

  P(X > 0.5) = P( \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} > \frac{0.5-4}{\sqrt{2.4} } ) = P(Z > -2.26) = P(Z < 2.26) = 0.98809

3 0
3 years ago
Two lines are intersecting. What is the value of x? Enter your answer in the box.
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

To find the value of x, you set the equations as equal to each other:

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Then you simplify:

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2 years ago
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Answer:

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A=2(wl+hl+hw)

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w-Width  

h-Height

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