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Ierofanga [76]
3 years ago
11

Equipment was purchased for $150,000. Freight charges amounted to $7,000 and there was a cost of $20,000 for building a foundati

on and installing the equipment. It is estimated that the equipment will have a $30,000 salvage value at the end of its 5-year useful life. Depreciation expense each year using the straight-line method will be:
Business
1 answer:
Sever21 [200]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$29,400

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

Cost of asset = $150,000 + $20,000 + $7,000 = $177,000

($177,000 - $30,000) / 5 = $29,400

I hope my answer helps you

You might be interested in
"other things being​ equal, which market structure would produce the least output and the highest average product​ price
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

The answer is monopoly.

Explanation:

Monopoly is a market type where there is only one producer that is capable of manufacturing a certain product. In this type of market, the producer is capable of producing the smallest amount of products and setting the price that the consumers should pay to purchase the product. The former is possible mainly because the company is capable of knowing how many products do they need to manufacture to achieve the target profit – their sales projection tends to be more accurate than other companies that operate in a different market type.

5 0
3 years ago
Natalie and Curtis have been experiencing great demand for their cookies and muffins. As a result, they are now thinking about b
lukranit [14]

Answer:

Cookie & Coffee Creations Inc.

a) Current Portion of Note Payable:

= $4,000

b) Long-term Portion of Note Payable:

= $6,000

Explanation:

Data and Calculations:

Date of Note Payable = November 1, 2017

Period = 3 years

Interest rate = 5%

Terms of payment:

Fixed principal payments = $2,000

Payment dates = May 1 and November 1

Each year's principal repayment = $4,000 ($2,000 x 2)

From November 1, 2017 to October 31, 2018 = $4,000

At October 31, 2018, Payment made = $2,000 on May 1

Remaining Note payable = $10,000 ($12,000 - $2,000)

Current Portion = $4,000 ($2,000 x 2)

Long-term Portion = $6,000

b) The current portion of $4,000 will be payable on November 1, 2018 and May 1, 2019.  The current portion represents the short-term portion of the note payable, which is the portion that will be settled within a 12-months' period.  Since Cookie & Coffee Creations Inc. had already paid $2,000 on May 1, 2018, the long-term portion will only remain $6,000 ($12,000 - $2,000 - $4,000), which is the difference between the total note payable, the portion paid on May 1, 2018, and the current portion of $4,000 that will be payable within one year.

5 0
3 years ago
Honduras is a small economy in central america. it keeps a fixed exchange rate with the us. capital is perfectly mobile. you may
rosijanka [135]

Answer:

Given that Honduras is a small economy in Central America, and it keeps a fixed exchange rate with the US, and capital is perfectly mobile, but interest rates are three percent in the US and six percent in Honduras, the explanation of the difference in these interest rates are as follows:

Honduras has a higher interest rate, meaning that its sovereign bonds pay higher values than the American ones, as well as its banks also pay higher interests on their investments compared to American banks.

This is so for a double reason: on the one hand, because the Honduran economy is less reliable than the American economy, which is larger and therefore more solvent and capable of overcoming eventual crises, with which the risk of default is less.

On the other hand, the Honduran economy is more dependent on foreign investment, so it must offer higher interest rates to attract such investments.

5 0
3 years ago
An investor is considering two investment, an office building and bonds. He can only invest on of them. The possible return from
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

1) Calculate the expected return and variance of investing in office building.

expected return:

$50,000 x 0.3 = $15,000

$60,000 x 0.2 = $12,000

$80,000 x 0.1 = $8,000

$10,000 x 0.3 = $3,000

<u>$0 x 0.1 = $0                      </u>

expected return = $38,000

$50,000 - $38,000 = -$12,000² = $144,000,000

$60,000 - $38,000 = -$22,000² = $484,000,000

$80,000 - $38,000 = -$42,000² = $1,764,000,000

$10,000 - $38,000 = -$28,000² = $784,000,000

<u>$0 - $38,000 = -$38,000² = $1,444,000,000         </u>

<u />

expected variance: (0.3 x $144,000,000) + (0.2 x $484,000,000) + (0.1 x $1,764,000,000) + (0.3 x $784,000,000) + (0.1 x $1,444,000,000) = $43,200,000 + $96,200,000 + $176,400,000 + $235,200,000 + $144,400,000 = $695,400,000

standard deviation = √$895,800,000 = $26,370

2) Calculate the expected return and variance of investing in bonds.

expected return:

$30,000 x 0.4 = $12,000

<u>$40,000 x 0.6 = $24,000   </u>

expected return = $36,000

$30,000 - $36,000 = -$6,000² = $36,000,000

<u>$40,000 - $36,000 = $4,000² = $16,000,000</u>

<u />

expected variance: (0.4 x $36,000,000) + (0.6 x $16,000,000) = $14,400,000 + $9,600,000 = $24,000,000

standard deviation = √$24,000,000 = $4,899

3) Based on the expected return we should choose investing in a building, but if we consider the variance and the standard deviation of the investments, I would choose investing in bonds. The difference in expected returns is not that large (only $2,000) but the variance and standard deviations of investing in the office buildings is quite large, meaning that the risk is very high.

3 0
3 years ago
If a borrower can afford to make monthly principal and interest payments of 1000 and the lender will make a 30 year loan at 5 1/
Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

The the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

Step 1: Calculations of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2%

PV30 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 5 1/2% = 5.50% = 0.055

n = number of years = 30

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV30 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055))^30) / 0.055)

PV30 = 1000 * 14.5337451711221

PV30 = 14,533.75

Step 2: Calculation of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%

PV20 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 4 1/2% = 4.50% = 0.045

n = number of years = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV20 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.045))^20) / 0.045)

PV20 = 1000 * 13.0079364514537

PV20 = 13,007.94

Conclusion

Since 14,533.75 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% is greater than the 13,007.94 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%, it therefore implies that the the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

5 0
2 years ago
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