Answer:
$26,000 adverse variance
Explanation:
Fixed Overheads Volume Variance = Budgeted Overheads at Actual Output - Budgeted Fixed Overheads
= $1.30 x 60,000 hours - $1.30 x 80,000
= $78,000 - $104,000
= $26,000 adverse variance
The fixed factory overhead volume variance is $26,000 adverse variance
The cost when someone borrows money from someone else is known as interest.
<h3>What is interest?</h3>
Interest rate is the cost of borrowing. It is the amount the borrower pays the lender for use of their funds. It is usually a function of the amount borrowed, length of the loan and the interest rate.
For example, if a person borrows $1000 for 1 year at an interest rate of 10, the interest that would be paid is: $1000 x 0.1 = $100.
To learn more about interest rate, please check: brainly.com/question/14935026
Answer:
11%
Explanation:
To address this exercise, we need to recall the formula for dividend discounted model (DDM). The DDM is stated as below:
Stock intrinsic value = Next year dividend/(Required rate of return - Long term growth)
Rearrange a bit this formula, we have:
Next year dividend/Stock intrinsic value = Required rate of return - Long term growth, or
Dividend yield = Required rate of return - Long term growth
Putting all the number together, we have:
6.4% = Required rate of return - 4.6% or Required rate of return = 11%
Answer:
1. Vacation pay expense Dr. 3500
Vacation pay payable 3500
2. It is recorded at the company's balance sheet as the accrued liabililty at the liabilities portion.
3. The amount will be removed once the vacation pay is paid and is debited to income account.
Answer:
It is more profitable to continue processing.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A company has inventory that cost $50,000. Its scrap value is $65,000. The inventory could be sold for $150,000 if manufactured further at an additional cost of $80,000.
Sell for scrap= 65,000 - 50,000= 15,000
Continue processing= 150,000 - 80,000 - 50,000= 20,000
