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masha68 [24]
3 years ago
9

F (1) = -16. f(n)=-29-f(n-1) f2=

Mathematics
1 answer:
Simora [160]3 years ago
3 0

Step-by-step explanation:

f(n) = - 29 - f( n - 1 )

f(1) = - 16

Now

f(2) = - 29 - f ( 2 - 1 )

= - 29 - f ( 1)

= -29 - ( - 16)

= - 29 + 16

= - 13

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The scale of a map is 1 inch = 60 miles. Find the actual distance if the distance on the distance on the map is 3 1/2 inches.
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

The scale is

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Find the distance of equivalent to 3 1/2 in

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Is 10/9 closer to 0 1/2 or 1
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The answer is the number 1.
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You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

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And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
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8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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enyata [817]

Answer:

There are a total of 2 hours and 50 min.

Step-by-step explanation:

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so take away 10 from 180 min to get 170

8 0
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