Answer:
C. To enforce property rights
Explanation:
Government intervention in market can be non materistically via regulation , materistically via taxes & subsidy.
Although the second materislistic way of tax, subsidy comes under the perview of 'Government Budget' .
Government budget is anual financial statement showing economy's expected revenue & expenditure .
Economic growth & stability by reallocation of resources , reducing income inequalities - reflect 'efficiency' & 'equity' as valid reasons .
Foreign protection is also not invalid depending upon the initial budding stage of a developing economy & its global stand. Eg - India 1950 to 1990 .
However all these are progressive legitimate reason for govt. Intervention .
But , enforcing property rights is a feature of 'socialistic (communistic) economy - which has its own demerits like loss of consumers soveireignity , lack of postive competitive efficiency , govt overburden.
Answer:
tspecialize in being a surgeon because its opportunity cost is lower
Explanation:
A person has comparative advantage in production if it produces at a lower opportunity cost when compared to other people.
Implicit cost is the cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives
What the surgeon would give up to pratice as a surgeon would be lower compared than if he decided to specialise in cleaning pools
thus he should specialize in being a surgeon because its opportunity cost is lower
Answer:
$74.58
Explanation:
The price of share of the Bretton Inc in the given question shall be the present value of all the dividends associated with this share in the future years.
Present value of year 1 dividend=3.31(1+13%)^-1=$2.93
(3.15*1.05)
Present value of year 2 dividend=3.48(1+13%)^-2=$2.73
(3.31*1.05)
Present value of year 3 dividend=3.65(1+13%)^-3=$2.53
(3.48*1.05)
Present value of year 4 dividend=3.83(1+11%)^-4=$2.52
(3.65*1.05)
Present value of year 5 dividend=4.02(1+11%)^-5=$2.39
(3.83*1.05)
Present value of year 6 dividend=4.22(1+11%)^-6=$2.26
(4.02*1.05)
Present value of all the cash flows after 6 year=$59.22
[4.22(1+5%)/(9%-5%)]*(1+11%)^-6
Price of share $74.58
Answer:
Total purchase value (Cost basis) = $105,770
Explanation:
Given:
Appraisal value = $132,970
Offer price = $154,091
Cash amount = $30,971
Notes payable = $22,282
Mortgage amount = $52,517
Find:
Total purchase value (Cost basis)
Computation:
Total purchase value (Cost basis) = Cash + Notes payable + Mortgage amount
Total purchase value (Cost basis) = $30,971 + $22,282 + $52,517
Total purchase value (Cost basis) = $105,770
