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Georgia [21]
4 years ago
15

What is the factored form of a2 – 121?

Mathematics
1 answer:
777dan777 [17]4 years ago
3 0
I hope this helps you


121=11.11



a^2-11^2


(a-11). (a+11)



a.a+11a-11a-11.11


a^2+0-121


a^2-121
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The perimeter of a triangle is 510 feet and the sides are in the ratio of 11:16:24. Find the area of the triangle
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If the sides are in the ratio of 11:16:24, it means that they are all multiples of a same number x, according to these factors.

So, the shorter side is 11x feet long, the middle one is 16x feet long, and the longest side is 24x feet long.

This means that the perimeter is

11x+16x+24x = 51x feet long. But we know that this is 510 feet, so we have

51x = 510 \implies x = \cfrac{510}{51} = 10.

So, the three sides are 110, 160 and 240 feet long.

To find the area of a triangle knowing its three sides, you can use Heron's formula, which states that, if s is half the perimeter of the triangle whose sides are a,b,c, the area A is given by

A = \sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}

In our case, s = 255, a = 110, b = 160, c = 240 so the formula becomes

A = \sqrt{255(255-110)(255-160)(255-240)} = \sqrt{255(145)(95)(15)} = \sqrt{52689375} \approx 7258.74

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What is the slope of the line represented by the equation y
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3 years ago
3x − 14y = –20 what the answer i need help please
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

Boooommm x= -2

Step-by-step explanation:

3x − 14y = –20

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Use the function below to find F(3).
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Answer:

<u>C </u>

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with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee
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Answer:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And using the complement rule we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

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3 years ago
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