According to the given, 1 in every 10 women has been a victim, therefore the probability of a victim of domestic abuse at some pint is

We need to use Binomial distribution to take a randomly sampled of 25 women and asked each whether she has been a victim.

Where x is the event that shows a victim of domestic abuse at some point.
We need to find the probability of these victim at least 2 has been victim of abuse, so
![P(x>=2) = 1- [P(x=0)+P(x=1)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28x%3E%3D2%29%20%3D%201-%20%5BP%28x%3D0%29%2BP%28x%3D1%29%5D)
![P(x>=2) = 1 - [^{25}C_0(0.10)^0(1-0.10)^{25-0}+^{25}C_1(0.10)^1(1-0.10)^{25-1}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28x%3E%3D2%29%20%3D%201%20-%20%5B%5E%7B25%7DC_0%280.10%29%5E0%281-0.10%29%5E%7B25-0%7D%2B%5E%7B25%7DC_1%280.10%29%5E1%281-0.10%29%5E%7B25-1%7D%5D)
![P(x>=2) = 1 - [0.07198+0.199]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28x%3E%3D2%29%20%3D%201%20-%20%5B0.07198%2B0.199%5D)

So the probability is 0.729
Answer:
im not sure but i think its 48
Step-by-step explanation:
if you divide the two you get 96. Divide that by the average rate number (2) and get 48.
The answer is D 1078 cm or it might be 1615
Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
22-14=8
8+10=18
18+4=22
The first option is correct. See an explanation below.