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lana [24]
3 years ago
14

Your uncle has $500,000 and wants to retire. He expects to live for another 30 years and to earn 6.5% on his invested funds. How

much could he withdraw at the end of each of the next 30 years and end up with zero in the account
Business
1 answer:
Andrei [34K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$38, 288.718

Explanation:

The amount to be withdrawn at the end of each year, for  30 years

The amount of $500,000 represents the present value while yearly withdraws the annuities.

We use a revised formula for calculating annuities.

Applicable formula is

P   = PV × r/( 1 − (1+r)−n

P = annual withdrawals

PV  = $500,000

r = 6.5%

n 30

P = 500,000 x( 0.065/ ( 1- (1 + 0.065) -30)}

p = 500,000 x (0.065/ (1-1+.065)-30)

p= 500,000 x (0.065 / 1-0.1511860661)

P =500,000 x (0.065 /0.848814)

P= 500,000 x 0.076577436

Yearly withdrawals  = $38, 288.718

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Lawler Manufacturing Company expects annual manufacturing overhead to be $810,000. The company also expects 45,000 direct labor
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

A. Overhead allocation rates based on direct labour hours = $18 per direct labour hour

B. Overhead allocation based on direct labour cost = 0.6

C. Overhead allocation rates based on machine time = $40 per machine time hour

Explanation:

Here, we are interested in having some calculations done; We proceed as follows;

From the question, the total overhead = 810,000

Mathematically;

a. The overhead allocation rates based on direct labour hours = Amount of total overhead/Total direct labour hours

= 810,000/45,000 = $18 per direct labour hour

b. The overhead allocation based on direct labour cost = Amount of total overhead / Total direct labour costs

= 810,000/1,350,000 = 0.6

C. Overhead allocation based on Machine time = Amount of total overhead/total machine time hours = 810,000/20,250 = $40 per machine time hour

7 0
3 years ago
The cost method that will yield an ending inventory value that is somewhere between possible high and low costs (prices) using t
o-na [289]

The weighted average cost of capital is the cost approach that will produce an ending inventory value that is in between probable high and low costs (prices) using classic costing methods.

The weighted average cost of capital is the average cost of attracting investors, whether bonds or shareholders.

The computation weights the cost of capital depending on the amount of debt and equity used by the firm, providing a clear barrier rate for internal initiatives or future acquisitions.

The weighted average inventory cost is one of the approaches used in inventory valuation. It is computed by dividing the cost of products for sale by the number of units for sale. i.e The cost of the items for sale and the quantity of units for sale. Because it is based on averages, the ending inventory value is generally somewhere between high and low cost.

To know more about weighted average cost of capital click here:

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8 0
1 year ago
Which of these is NOT a barrier to trade?
Anton [14]

Answer:

All the options are correct

7 0
2 years ago
On October 1, 2017, Sharp Company (based in Denver, Colorado) entered into a forward contract to sell 330,000 rubles in four mon
Yuliya22 [10]

Solution:

Date             Account tides           Debit (S in ruble)      Credit (S in ruble)

                 and Explanation

Oct 1        Accounts receivable             96,600

                    Sales

          ( 210,000 ruble x $0.46)                                       96,600

Dec 31     Accounts receivable

           ( 50.49-50.46) x (210,000 ruble)   6,300

             Foreign Exchange gain                                       6,300

          Loss on forward contract            2079,21

                   Forward Contract

     (50.52-50.51) x 210,000 ruble =2,100

             2,100 x 0.9901= $2079.21                                2079.21

Jan31        Accounts receivable (LC U)       4,200

                   Foreign exchange gain

            (50.51-50.49) x 210,000 ruble                               4200

                     Foreign currency                 107,100

                 Accounts receivable

           (596.600-56,300-54,200)                                   107,100

                          Cash                              107,100

               Foreign cuuency (LCU)

                ($0.51 x210.000 ruble)                                      107,100  

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an explanation of the capture theory​? A. When products have too many warning labels comma consumers m
seropon [69]

Answer: B. People who have been in an industry are most likely to be asked to be regulators of the industry.

Explanation:

The Capture Theory or Regulatory Capture refers to a situation where the agencies that are supposed to be regulating an industry come under the influence of the companies they are meant to be regulating.

This leads to a situation where the Agencies make regulations that favour these companies instead of the consumer.

One key way this occurs is the REVOLVING DOOR. This is known as the tendency of professionals to move between Government and Private jobs. Simply put, a professional could work in an industry and then go on to work in an Agency regulating that industry. Once this happens, the once private citizens could start influencing the Agencies in favour of their previous bosses.

7 0
3 years ago
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