Answer: $337,800
Explanation:
Cashflow is constant so is an annuity.
The Present value of the Investment;
= Present Value of Cashflow - Investment cost
= (220,000 * Present value interest factor of an annuity, 5 years, 9% ) - 518,000
= (220,000 * 3.89) - 518,000
= 855,800 - 518,000
= $337,800
Answer:
Option E. Ensure that performance standards are not vague.
Explanation:
Option E is correct because if the performance standards are not vague and are realistic then the evaluation will be more fair. It will also not demotivate the employees as they will be accepting what went wrong.
Option A is incorrect because we can use both subjective and objective performance indicators.
Option B is incorrect because ensuring less time to appraise the performance means that the appraiser hasn't acknowledged the full scenario hence the evaluation wasn't fair.
Option C is incorrect because distributive justice must be applied. As it helps in acknowleging what the organization has done wrong with the employees that has resulted in poor performance.
Option D is incorrect because if the performance indicators are not representative of tasks for which the person was accountable then the evaluation is not fair. I will be held accountable for things which I wasn't deligated responsibility. Hence employee must be accountable for the responsibility deligated.
Answer: a bullish signal
Explanation:
The question depicts a bullish signal. A bullish signal describes an indicator when there's likely to be an increase in price.
An example of a bullish indicator occurs when there's a huge number of margin transactions, as this implies that investors are buying and thus will then bring about an increase in prices.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
Answer:
A) 9458 units
B) She would prefer the one with the single lump payment of $35,000 because the present value of the other one would increase with an increase in the units sold.
Explanation:
A) To calculate the uniform annual sales volume based on a present worth analysis, we will make use of the formula for present value of annuity.
Thus;
P = PMT × (1 - ((1/(1 - rⁿ))/r
From the question, we are given;
P = $35,000
PMT = (1200 + 0.4x)
r = 7% = 0.07
n = 10
Thus, Plugging in the relevant values, we have;
(1200 + 0.4x)((1 - (1/(1 + 0.07)^10))/0.07 = 35000
This gives;
(1200 + 0.4x) × 7.0236 = 35000
(1200 + 0.4x) = 35000/7.0236
(1200 + 0.4x) = 4983.2
0.4x = 4983.2 - 1200
0.4x = 3783.2
x = 3783.2/0.4
x = 9458 units
B) She would prefer the one with the single lump payment of $35,000 because the present value of the other one would increase with an increase in the units sold.
Artificial barriers i think but the other possible answer could be slight control over price
