Answer:
No. In an 8-1 decision authored by Chief Justice Morrison Waite, the Court concluded that the relevant sections of the Enforcement Act lacked the necessary, limiting language to qualify as enforcement of the Fifteenth Amendment. The Chief Justice first stated that the Fifteenth Amendment "does not confer the right of suffrage upon any one," but "prevents the States, or the United States, however, from giving preference…to one citizen of the United States over another on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude." In examining the language of the Enforcement Act, the Court noted that, while the first two sections of the act explicitly referred to race in criminalizing interference with the right to vote, the relevant third and fourth sections refer only to the "aforesaid" offense. According to the Court, this language does not sufficiently tailor the law to qualify as "appropriate legislation" under the Enforcement Clause of the Fifteenth Amendment.
Explanation:
Hitler capitalized on economic woes, popular discontent and political infighting to take absolute power in Germany beginning in 1933. Germany's invasion of Poland in 1939 led to the outbreak of World War II, and by 1941 Nazi forces had occupied much of Europe.
Answer: The government thought they weren't going to make it out so if they were given aid it would have been a waste.
Explanation:
Claiming for France the land around the Mississippi River
Hoped this helped :)
In reality yes and no. The assassination of Franz Ferdinand did occur in the Balkans, and was the result of a situation in the Balkans. However Franz Joseph declared war for other reasons as well. This is a topic I encourage you to research on your own. Not only if the cause came truly from the Balkans, but also if it was really "foolish".
The Great War channel on youtube has a lot of educational and helpful content regarding world war one's causes if you look for their "Prelude to war" specials in their channel.
