Successive weekly sales, in units of one thousand dollars, have a bivariate normal distribution with common mean 40, common stan
dard deviation 6, and correlation .6. (a) Find the probability that the total of the next 2 weeks’ sales exceeds 90. (b) If the correlation were .2 rather than .6, do you think that this would increase or decrease the answer to (a)? Explain your reasoning. (c) Repeat (a) when the correlation is .2.
1 answer:
You might be interested in
The answers to the questions are:
- a. $33,750
- b. $36000
- c. $90000
a. <u>the straight-line method of depreciation</u>
= (240000 - 60000) / 4 * (9 / 12)
= $33,750
The debit is 33750 as well as the credit
b. <u> the units-of-production method of depreciation</u>
(240000 - 60000) / 60000 * 12000
= $36000
c. <u>the double-declining balance method of depreciation</u>
(24000 *2 /4) * (9/12)
= $90000
Read more on depreciation here: brainly.com/question/1203926
#SPJ1