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3 years ago

Help me out! I'm struggling, please show your work! :)

Mathematics

1 answer:

EleoNora [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

the answer would be

x=14.047

Step-by-step explanation:

the work is shown below

HOPE THIS HELPS YOU OUT AND IF IT DID PLS MARK ME AS BRAINIEST

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Help me out please an thank you

klio [65]

Answer:

756.748

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

2 years ago

Expanding log functions<br> ㏒3 (3(x+1)(x+2))

Oksanka [162]

Log(ab)=log(a)+log(b)
log_a(a)=1
so

$log_3(3(x+1)(x+2))=log_3(3)+log_3(x+1)+log(x+2)=$ $1+log_3(x+1)+log_3(x+2)$

6 0

3 years ago

Rachel saved money to buy art supplies. She used 1/3 of her savings to buy brushes. She used 3/5 of her savings to buy paint. Wh

kifflom [539]

Rachel saved enough money and she used 14/15

3 0

3 years ago

Every Monday evening, a mathematics teacher stops by the dry cleaners, drops off the shirts that he wore for the week, and picks

ikadub [295]

(T+W+T+F+S+S+M)+(T+W+T+F+S+S+M)=14

7 0

3 years ago

The probability that a grader will make a marking error on any particular question of a multiple-choice exam is 0.15. If there a

sashaice [31]

Answer:

$P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

$P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: $P(A)+P(A') =1$

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)$

what is the probability that no errors are made?

For this case means that all the questions were correct so we want this probability:

$P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969$

what is the probability that at least one error made?

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And we can use the complement rule:

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

If there are n questions and the probability of a marking error is p rather than 0.15, give expressions for the probabilities of no errors and at least one error

$P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

8 0

3 years ago