Answer:
i thr 10 dollers would be ear by 1 thousand
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
So we have the function:

To find the inverse function, switch x and f(x), change f(x) to f⁻¹(x), and solve for f⁻¹(x). Therefore:

Switch:

Add 1 to both sides:

Divide both sides by 6:

And that's our answer :)
Its directly because it is it is hard to expain
Answer:
-7
Step-by-step explanation:
since its 1 point negative below 8 its -7
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The given expression to us is ,
Now take the LCM as ( x - 1 ) and Simplify , we have ,
Simplifying further , we get ,
Hence the second option is correct .