"1 indicating a coupon and all other outcomes indicating no coupon"
Probability is (number of successful outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes)
Theoretical Probability of rolling a 1: 1/8
Experimental Probability of using coupons: 4/48 = 1/12
So, the experimental probability of a customer using a coupon (that is, 1/12) is smaller than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (that is, 1/8).
Let's start with the blue states. Out of 50 states, 28 of them were blue.
Therefore, the fraction would be 28/50. Let's reduce it.
28/50=14/25 --> these are the lowest terms for this fraction
Use a calculator to find the decimal solution --> 14/25= .56
Now, let's do the red states. Out of the 50 states, 22 of them were blue.
22/50=11/25 --> lowest terms
Use a calculator --> 11/25= .43
Any second part or anything else to look at?
Answer:
The answer is b = -9/2
Step-by-step explanation:
