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Andrews [41]
2 years ago
10

What is one fourth of 52

Mathematics
2 answers:
AlekseyPX2 years ago
7 0
Your answer will be 13
harkovskaia [24]2 years ago
4 0
1/4 of 52 is 13 because 1/4 of 52 is equal to 52 divided by 4
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A skull cleaning factory cleans animal skulls of​ deer, buffalo and other types of animals using​ flesh-eating beetles. the fact
Shtirlitz [24]
The solution for this problem is:
The population is 500 times bigger since 8000/24 = 500. The population after t days is computed by:P(t) = P₀·4^(t/49) 
Solve for t: 8000 = 8·4^(t/49) 1000 = 4^(t/49) log₄(1000) = t/49t = 49log₄(1000) ≅ 244 days
8 0
3 years ago
Can you help me with number 6? <br> Confused abit <br> Please
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

You can see the three diagram attached. Each link is labeled with the probability: you have probability 1/6 that a six is rolled, and 5/6 that it is not rolled.


To answer the questions, find the path that brings you to the desired outcome, and multiply all the labels you meet.


First question:

To get three sixes, you have to choose the left path at each roll. The probability is always 1/6, so the answer is


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} \times \frac{1}{6} = \frac{1}{6^3}


Second question:

To get no sixes, you have to choose the right path at each roll. The probability is always 5/6, so the answer is


\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^3}{6^3}


Third question:

To get exactly one six, it can either be the first, second or third roll.


In all cases, you have to choose the left path once and the right path twice: left-right-right mean that you get the six in the first roll, right-left-right means that you get the six in the second roll, right-right-left means that you get the six in the third roll.


In every case, the left turn has probability 1/6, and the right turn has probability 5/6. The probability of each combination is thus


\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{5^2}{6^3}


And since there are three of these combinations, The answer is


3\frac{5^2}{6^3}


Fourth question:

Since the question suggests to use what we already achieved, let's do it: having at least one six is the complementary event of having no sixes at all. If an event has probability p, its complementary has probability 1-p. So, since the probability of no sixes is known, the probability of at least one six is


1 - \frac{5^3}{6^3}

4 0
3 years ago
a compys quality control department found an average 5 defective models for every 1000 models that were checked. If the company
3241004551 [841]
The best thing to do is to found out the percentage that is faulty. 1% is equal to 10 faulty products, therefore, 0.5% is equal to 5. In order to out how many there are in 60,000, you need to simply multiply 5 by 60, which is 300. Therefore, 300 are faulty. Hope this helps :)
6 0
3 years ago
Does anybody know how to do #11, I figured out #10
const2013 [10]

Answer:

no

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can you factor the GCF: 21x3y4 + 15x2y2 − 12xy3?
OLga [1]
3xy^2(7(x^2)(y^2)+5x-4y)
3 0
3 years ago
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