Answer:
i think it would be 10,000
I hope it helped!
To prove two equations have infinite solutions, you have to prove that those two equations are the same equations, but in a different form.
For example: Prove the equations are infinite
5y=2x+7
10y=4x+14
If you multiply the first equation by 2, and substitiute any of the numbers, you will get 0=0
0 and 1 are neither prime nor composite. A prime is any number greater than 1 that has just 1 and itself as factors. Primes can only start at x > 1
When that happens (when you start with numbers greater than one) p^2 is a composite consisting of 2 primes, so any composite will obey the law that he number will have at least 3 factors making it up -- in this case p p^2 and 1.
So the answer to the question by definition is that 0 numbers can have the property of both p and p^2 to be prime.