Question

Which statement is true about the function f(x) = -x?

Answer 1

Answer:

The answer is "It has the same domain as the function f(x) = --x".

Step-by-step explanation:

If we consider its parent function that is: y= x

Domain function is: $x \in (0, \infty)$

The range function is: $y \in (0, \infty)$

The function has both the same (domain and range).