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SSSSS [86.1K]
3 years ago
11

Serendipity Inc. is re-evaluating its debt level. Its current capital structure consists of 80% debt and 20% common equity, its

beta is 1.60, and its tax rate is 35%. However, the CFO thinks the company has too much debt, and he is considering moving to a capital structure with 40% debt and 60% equity. The risk-free rate is 5.0% and the market risk premium is 6.0%. By how much would the capital structure shift change the firm's cost of equity?
A: -5.2%
B: -5.78%
C: -6.36%
D: -6.99%
E: -7.69%
Business
1 answer:
Charra [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Using the current capital structure

Ke = Rf + β(Risk premium)

Ke = 5 + 1.60(6)

Ke = 5 + 9.60

Ke = 14.60

Weighted cost of equity

= 14.60(20/100)

= 2.92%

Using the new debt-equity ratio

Ke = 5 + 1.60(6)

Ke = 5 +  9.6

Ke  = 14.60%

Weighted cost of equity

Ke = 14.60(60/100)

Ke = 8.76%

Difference in cost of equity

= 2.92% - 8.76%

= -5.8%

Explanation:

There is need to calculate the cost of equity based on capital asset pricing model where Rf  represents risk-free rate, Rp denotes risk-premium and β refers to beta. Then, we will calculate the weighted cost of equity by multiplying cost of equity by the proportion of equity in the capital structure. We will also calculate the new weighted cost of equity by multiplying the cost of equity the new proportion of equity in the capital structure. Finally, we will deduct the new weighted cost of equity from the old weighted cost of equity.  

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Suppose we have a 2-person world, with only Stephen and his friend LeBron. Suppose that Stephen can move 70 boxes or bake
USPshnik [31]

Answer:

the correct answer would be D  No, trade isn't possible, because Stephen has an absolute advantage in both making cookies and moving boxes.

Explanation:

Stephen can move 34 more boxes/hr and bake 19 more cookies/hr than Lebron can.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Hampton Corporation has a beta of 1.3 and a marginal tax rate of 34%. The expected return on the market is 11% and the risk-free
vekshin1

Answer: 13.1%

Explanation:

Using the Capital Asset Pricing Model, the expected return is;

Expected Return = Risk Free rate + beta(expected return - risk free rate)

= 4% + 1.3( 11% - 4%)

= 4% + 9.1%

Expected Return = 13.1%

7 0
3 years ago
As of December 31, 2016, Nala Incorporated reported accounts receivable for $275,000 less allowance for doubtful accounts of $27
Rudik [331]

Answer:

a. 1. Debit Accounts receivable $180,000

Credit Sales $180,000

2. Debit cash $125,000

Credit Accounts receivable $125,000

3. Debit Sales return $20,000

Credit $20,000

4. Debit Provision for bad debts expense $35,000

Credit Accounts receivable $35,000

5. Debit Accounts receivable $ $2,500

Credit Provision for bad debts expense $2,500

Debit Cash $2,500

Credit Accounts receivable $2,500

B. Debit Bad debts expense $27,500

Credit provision for bad debt expense $27,500

Explanation:

1. Sale on account will increase the accounts receivable. So we have to debit accounts receivable and credit to sales in the amount of $180,000

2. Collections will decrease the accounts receivable due payments made by the customer. So we have to debit cash and credit accounts receivable by $125,000

3. Sales return is a contra asset account that will decrease the accounts receivable and also the net sales. So we will debit sales return and credit accounts receivable in the amount of $20,000

4. Write offs will decrease the provision for bad debts account as well as the accounts receivable accounts by $35,000

5. Recovery of bad debts previously written off has no effect in accounts receivable but will increase the provision for bad debts due to reversal of entry previously made. First, we will reverse the original written off entry. Debit Accounts receivable and credit provision for bad debts expense in the amount of $2,500. Then we will record the collection by debiting cash and crediting accounts receivable in the amount of $2,500

B. Let’s determine the balance of accounts receivable first,

Beg. $275,000 + 180,000 sale on account - 125,000 collection - 20,000 sales return - 35,000 write-off = $275,000

Therefore, $275,000 x 10% = $27,500

Entry:

Debit Bad debts expense $27,500

Credit provision for bad debts expense $27,500

3 0
3 years ago
Use the model to calculate the average rate of change of profit when the ticket price rises from $200 to $300. (Round your answe
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

600

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
what is the current prices of a $1,000 par bond maturing in 12 years with a coupon rate of 14%, paid semiannually, that has a yt
Leviafan [203]

The current prices of a $1,000 par bond maturing in 12 years with a coupon rate of 14%, paid semiannually, that has a ytm of 13% is $ 130000 .

The entire return anticipated on a bond if it is kept to maturity is known as yield to maturity (YTM). Although it is expressed as an annual rate, yield to maturity is regarded as a long-term bond yield. It is, therefore, the internal rate of return (IRR) of a bond investment assuming the investor retains the bond to maturity, with all scheduled payments made and reinvested at the same pace.

Yield to maturity is comparable to current yield, which calculates how much money would be made by purchasing and keeping a bond for a year by dividing annual cash inflows from that bond by its market price. The value of a coupon paying bond is calculated by discounting the future payments (coupon and principal) by an appropriate discount rate.

The bond characteristics are summarized below:

Par Value =     $1,000

Yield        =      13% annual (13/2 =6.5% semi-annual)

Coupon   =      12% with semi-annual payment of $60

Maturity   =      1 year

The value of the bond is calculated as follows:

$1000 of 13%  = (13/1000)* 100 =130

Calculate PMT = FV*Coupon Rate

Current price = $1000*130

Price = $ 130000

Learn more about yield to maturity visit: brainly.com/question/28033398

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
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