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Valentin [98]
3 years ago
14

7x - 4 = -4 Solve for x. Please show your work. Thanks!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Bingel [31]3 years ago
7 0
X=0 is definitely the answer but I belive how u solve it is 7×X=0 and that leaves -4 because it would be 0-4 so u just take out the zero. I think, but the answer is 0.
professor190 [17]3 years ago
5 0
The answer would be X = 0
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It'd will be still -5
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A.wood stove burns 4 same size logs in 2 hrs how many logs does the stove burn in 8 hours
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Their are 16 logs the stove burn in 8hours
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According to government data, 20% of employed women have never been married. If 10 employed women are selected at random, what i
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

a) P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302

b) P(X\leq 2) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) +P(X=2)

P(X=0) = (10C0) (0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{10-0}= 0.107

P(X=1) = (10C1) (0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{10-1}= 0.268

P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302

And replacing we got:

P(X\leq 2) = 0.107+0.268+0.302=0.678

c) For this case we want this probability:

P(X\geq 8) = P(X=8) + P(X=9) +P(X=10)

But for this case the probability of success is p =1-0.2= 0.8

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

P(X=8) = (10C8) (0.8)^8 (1-0.8)^{10-8} =0.302

P(X=9) = (10C9) (0.8)^9 (1-0.8)^{10-9} =0.268

P(X=10) = (10C10) (0.8)^{10} (1-0.8)^{10-10} =0.107

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 8) = 0.677

And replacing we got:

P(X\geq 8)=0.0000779

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Bin (n=10 ,p=0.2)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable "number of women that have never been married" , on this case we now that the distribution of the random variable is:  

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.2)  

Part a

We want to find this probability:

P(X=2)

And using the probability mass function we got:

P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X\leq 2) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) +P(X=2)

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

P(X=0) = (10C0) (0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{10-0}= 0.107

P(X=1) = (10C1) (0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{10-1}= 0.268

P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302

And replacing we got:

P(X\leq 2) = 0.107+0.268+0.302=0.678

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X\geq 8) = P(X=8) + P(X=9) +P(X=10)

But for this case the probability of success is p =1-0.2= 0.8

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

P(X=8) = (10C8) (0.8)^8 (1-0.8)^{10-8} =0.302

P(X=9) = (10C9) (0.8)^9 (1-0.8)^{10-9} =0.268

P(X=10) = (10C10) (0.8)^{10} (1-0.8)^{10-10} =0.107

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 8) = 0.677

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

70% of 500 ml = 0.7*500 ml = 350 ml

6 0
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zavuch27 [327]

Answer:

40%

Step-by-step explanation:

Total amount is 15

6 out of the 15 amount are apples

Thus, 6/15 x 100 = 40%

Or

You could ask yourself, what number do I multiply by 15 to get to 100?

Then, multiply the top (numerator) by it.

The value of the numerator will give you the final % (percentage) due to percentage being out of 100.

Hope this helps!

8 0
2 years ago
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