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astraxan [27]
3 years ago
7

How to show your problem

Mathematics
1 answer:
Shkiper50 [21]3 years ago
4 0

take a screenshot and then click the little paperclip to attach the picture.... that's what you're talking about right?

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Maria has three children. There is two years age difference between each child. The total ages of all three children is 36 years
ahrayia [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

R means Rosa

given:

R+b+c=36

R R c-2=b, (R+2)+2=c

b-2=R, R+2=b

.

R+b+c=36 substitute for b and c

R+(R+2)+((R+2)+2)=36 add like terms

3R+6=36 subtract 6

3R=30 divide by 3

R=10

.

check

R=10

b=12

c=14

10+12+14=36

36=36

8 0
3 years ago
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IF Tyler s currently 5 inches
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

7 more inches to be a foot tall

Step-by-step explanation:

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This is the least question of the day for me<br><br><br> Please help me :D
Rufina [12.5K]

Answer: i got 394

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Please help, I am literally freaking out.
Anon25 [30]

Y1-y2 over x1- x2 you should be able to figure it out after this formula

8 0
3 years ago
Sawyer conducted an experiment in which he rolled a number cube 50 times. He rolled the number 3 a total of seven times. Based o
lawyer [7]

If the number of trials is 50. Then the probability that he will not roll a 3 on his next roll will be 0.20 or 20 %.

<h3>How to find that a given condition can be modeled by binomial distribution?</h3>

Binomial distributions consist of n independent Bernoulli trials.

Bernoulli trials are those trials that end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures( with probability 1- p = q (say))

Suppose we have random variable X pertaining to a binomial distribution with parameters n and p, then it is written as

 

The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ (1 - p)ⁿ ⁻ ˣ

Sawyer conducted an experiment in which he rolled a number cube 50 times. He rolled the number 3 a total of seven times.

Then the probability that he will not roll a 3 on his next roll will be

p = 1/6 = 0.1667

q = 1 - p = 1 - 1/6 = 0.8333

Then the probability will be

P = ⁵⁰C₇ (0.8333)⁴¹ (0.1667)⁷

P = 0.20

Learn more about binomial distribution here:

brainly.com/question/13609688

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
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