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tigry1 [53]
3 years ago
8

Madden Enterprises sells two​ products, Silver models and Gold models. Madden Enterprises predicts that it will sell 6 comma 300

6,300 Silver models and 3 comma 9003,900 Gold models in the next period. The unit contribution margins for Silver models and Gold models are $ 95$95 and $ 190$190​, respectively. What is the weighted average unit contribution​ margin?
Business
1 answer:
madreJ [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The weighted average contribution margin per unit is $131.32.

Explanation:

The total combined sales of both the products equal, 6300 + 3900 = 10200

The weightage of each product in sales mix is,

Silver = 6300 / 10200

Gold = 3900 / 10200

The weighted average contribution margin can be calculated by multiplying the per unit contribution of each product with their respective weights.

Weighted average unit CM = 6300/10200 * 95 + 3900/10200 * 190

Weighted average unit CM = $131.32

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The uniqueness of a certificate of deposit compared to a time deposit is that it ______
sveticcg [70]

The uniqueness of a certificate of deposit compared to a time deposit is the financial penalty.

<h3>What is the financial penalty?</h3>

A financial penalty means the obligation to pay a sum of money on conviction of a criminal or administrative offense, including orders made in criminal proceedings to pay compensation for the benefit of victims of crime, financial penalties are the obligation to pay a sum of money upon conviction of a criminal or administrative offense. A sum of money is demanded as restitution for violating the law or, occasionally, a contract's conditions. and orders to pay sums in respect of the costs of a court or administrative proceedings. Payment is required as a result of breaking the law or sometimes for breaching the terms of a contract.

To learn more about the financial penalties, visit:

brainly.com/question/1681221

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
Plainville Corporation has the following data, in thousands. Assuming a 365-day year, what is the firm's cash conversion cycle?
devlian [24]

Answer:

Inventory cycle  = <u>Inventory </u>               x 365  days

                             Cost of goods sold      

Inventory cycle  = <u>$75,000</u>     x 365 days

                              $360,000  

                           = 76.04 days

Receivable days =  <u>Accounts receivable</u> x  365 days

                                       Sales        

                            = <u>$160,000</u>   x 365 days

                               $600,000  

                            =  97.33 days

Payable days      = <u>Accounts payable</u>  x 365 days

                              Cost of sales      

                            = <u>$25,000 </u>    x 365 days

                               $360,000  

                            = 25.35 days

Cash conversion cycle

= Inventory cycle + Receivable days - Payable days

= 76.04 days + 97.33 days - 25.35 days

=  148.0 days

Explanation:

Cash conversion cycle is calculated as raw inventory cycle plus receivable days minus payable days. Inventory cycle is the ratio of inventory to cost of goods sold multiplied by number of days in a year. Receivable days refer to the ratio of accounts receivable to sales multiplied by number of days in a year. Payable day is the ratio of accounts payable to cost of goods sold multiplied by number of days in a year.

6 0
3 years ago
Mary Alice just won the lottery and is trying to decide between the options of receiving the annual cash flow payment option of
mezya [45]

Answer:

The lum-sum must equal $5,369,009.59

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

First option:

Annual payment= $420,000

Number of periods= 25 years

Interest rate= 6%

<u>First, we need to calculate the future value of the first option using the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

<u>FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i</u>

A= annual deposit

FV= {420,000*[(1.06^25) - 1]} / 0.06

FV= $23,043,095.04

<u>Now, to determine the lump-sum to receive today, we need to determine the present worth of the annuity:</u>

PV= FV / (1 + i)^n

PV= 23,043,095.04 / (1.06^25)

PV= $5,369,009.59

5 0
3 years ago
Using self-determination theory to motivate employees at Cloud9, a data storage company, the vice chair makes 10–20 phone calls
Sholpan [36]

Answer:

Explanation:

These are competence needs. These needs are based on the idea that a person needs to feel a sense of mastery when they are undertaking tasks at a job. When the manager gives the worker a sense of accomplishment by noticing when they are doing the job well, this is a way of fulfilling those needs.

5 0
3 years ago
Toy Town is considering a new toy that will cost $49,100 in startup costs. The toy is expected to produce cash flows of $47,500
Tasya [4]

Answer:

NPV with a 14.9% discount rate: 6,329.06

The toy should be produced as the NPV is positive.

IRR = 26.65%

Explanation:

First we calculate for the NPV using the given discount rate of 14.9%

We will calculate the present value of each year cash inflow:

\frac{inflow}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Year 1 cash inflow: 47,500.00

time   1.00

rate  0.149

\frac{47500}{(1 + 0.149)^{1} } = PV  

PV   41,340.30

Year 2 cash inflow:  18,600.00

time   2.00

rate  0.149

\frac{18600}{(1 + 0.149)^{2} } = PV  

PV   14,088.76

Then, we add them and subtract the investment to get NPV

NPV = 14,088.76 + 41,340.3 - 49,100 = 6,329.06

The toy should be produced as the NPV is positive.

Now for the IRR

That is the rate at which NPV equals zero we can solve for this using the quadratic equation as there are only two cash flow:

Year 1 will discount at (1+IRR)

Year 2 will be discount at (1+IRR )^2

So we can express and recreate the quadratic formula:

18,600 X^2 + 47,500 X - 49,500 = 0

A = 18,600

B = 47,500

C = -49,100

x_1 = \frac{-b+\sqrt{b^{2} -4ac}}{2a}\\x_2 = \frac{-b -\sqrt{b^{2} -4ac}}{2a}

We can solve and get:

x1 =  0.78957

x2 = -3.3433

We take the positive value.

and now solve for IRR

\frac{1}{1+ IRR} = 0.78957\\IRR = \frac{1}{0.78957} -1

IRR = 0,2665121 = 26.65%

This will be the IRR for the project.

4 0
4 years ago
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