Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
50 dollars = ∉34
∉1 = Rs 150
Rs 382800 / 150 Rs per ∉ = 382800/150 ∉
=2552 ∉
50 dollars = ∉34 so 50/34 dollars = ∉
2552 ∉ × 50/34 dollar per ∉ = in the units the ∉ cancel out
∉ × dollar/∉ = dollars
(2552 × 50) / 34 = 3752.94 dollars <------------------
Here is another way of looking at the answer...........
Rs 382800 × 1∉/150 Rs × 50 dollars/34 ∉ = note how the units cancel
= 382800 × (1/150) × (50/34) Rs × ∉/Rs × dollars/∉
= 3,752.94 dollars leaving only dollars in the numerator
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
First, change the mixed numbers into improper fractions:
5 2/3 = 17/3
Then, find the common denominator:
41/6 + 17/3=
LCM = 6
17/3 *2 = 34/6
41/6 + 34/6
Last, Add
25/6 or
12 1/2
Hope this helps!
mark brainliest if possible!
Answer: the answer is an equation
Step-by-step explanation:
Hey!
Answer:
4/1
Step-by-step explanation:
- The multiplicative inverse of a number is the reciprocal of it. (a/b → b/a).
- Basically you divide 1 by the other number. (1 ÷ 1/4 = 4 or 4/1).
Hope This Helps :)
