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padilas [110]
3 years ago
5

Is Starbucks bucking the trend of other food-service stores, or is something else going on?

Business
1 answer:
Natasha_Volkova [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

its it's something else

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Bed & Bath, a retailing company, has two departments, Hardware and Linens. The company's most recent monthly contribution fo
Dafna1 [17]

For this problem, we are required to calculate the net operating income.

In order to answer the question, we will first calculate the impact of the changes on the Hardware department. Then we will add the remaining fixed costs that are currently charged to Linens that will continue.

To calculate net operating income, subtract operating expenses from the revenue generated by a property. Revenue from real Hardware department estate includes rental income, parking fees, service changes, vending machines, laundry machines, and so on.

Net income, also known as the bottom line, Hardware department indicates a business's profitability. It shows how much profit is left from revenue after accounting for expenses and liabilities. Net income is profit that can be distributed to business owners or shareholders or invested in business growth.

A corporation's positive net income causes an increase in the retained earnings, which is part of stockholders' equity. A net loss will cause a decrease in retained earnings and stockholders' equity.

learn more about Hardware department: brainly.com/question/27803497

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6 0
1 year ago
Use the following data to calculate the cost of goods sold for the period: Beginning Raw Materials Inventory $ 30,000 Ending Raw
prisoha [69]

Answer:

the cost of goods sold is $250,000

Explanation:

The computation of the cost of goods sold is given below:

= Opening finished goods inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished goods inventory

= $72,000 + $246,000 - $68,000

= $250,000

Hence, the cost of goods sold is $250,000

8 0
3 years ago
Assume the initial present value of the payments on a lease are equal to the cost of the leased asset. This capital lease is rec
Whitepunk [10]

Answer: D) present value of the remaining lease payments.

Explanation:

When recording a capital lease in the balance sheet of the lessee, the amount recorded is the<em> lower amount </em>between the present value of the remaining lease payments or the cost of the leased asset.

As the <em>cost</em> of the leased asset is <em>equal</em> to the <em>initial</em> present value of the payments, the cost will therefore be higher than the current present value of the remaining payments so the appropriate amount to put in the balance sheet will be the current present value of the remaining lease payments.

4 0
3 years ago
When the cost minimizing combination of inputs is being used and there is no corner​ solution,
LenKa [72]

Answer:

A. the iso-quant line is tangent to the iso-cost line.

Explanation:

Cost minimization refers to the decrease in level of cost of production for certain specified level of production.

Iso quant line represents the labor and capital combinations keeping the total cost same. The least combination represents the tangent to isoquant, basically representing the idle choice of labor and capital.

In this manner the company chooses the idle way of cost minimization.

4 0
3 years ago
Assume that you are the portfolio manager of the SF Fund, a $3 million hedge fund that contains the following stocks. The requir
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

11.11%

Explanation:

<em><u>The full question with table is attached.</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

We need the rate of return formula using Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). The formula is:

R=R_f+\beta(R_m-R_f)

Where

R is rate of return (what we need)

R_f is risk-free return rate (5% = 0.05)

R_m is the market rate of return (11% = 0.11)

To get \beta, we take the weighted average of the portfolio.

Weight of Stock A = 1,075,000/3,000,000 = 0.3583

Weight of Stock B = 675,000/3,000,000 = 0.225

Weight of Stock C = 750,000/3,000,000 = 0.25

Weight of Stock D = 500,000/3,000,000 = 0.1667

Portfolio Beta = (0.3583*1.2) + (0.225*0.50) + (0.25*1.40) + (0.1667*0.75) = 1.02  

Now, we calculate rate of return using CAPM formula:

R=R_f+\beta(R_m-R_f)\\R=0.05+1.02(0.11-0.05)\\R=0.1112

That is 11.12%, or from answer choice, it is <u>11.11%</u>

7 0
3 years ago
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