Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
We would need to multiply the number of trials (which is 500) by the probability of choosing a red in 1 try from the information given.
<em>There are 50 in total, and 8 of them are red, so:</em>
P(red) = 
<em>Now we multiply this with 500 to get:</em>
The correct answer is A.
Answer:
1. No solution
2. Infinite many solutions
3. One solution
4. No solution
5. No solution
6. One solution
7. No solution
8. One solution
9. Infinite many solutions
10. Infinite many solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
P-0.40p = 0.60p
C. Decrease by 40% is the same as multiply by 60%.
Assume that p = 10
10 - 0.40(10) = 0.60(10)
10 - 4 = 6
6 = 6
Based on the above assumption. 40% of 10 is 4 ; and 60% of 10 is 6. So, 10 less 4(40% of 10) is equal to 6 (60% of 10).
Percentage is used because 0.40 and 0.60 will be multiplied with 100% to get the equivalent percentage 0.40 x 100% = 40% ; 0.60 x 100% = 60%
Step-by-step explanation:
SAS is Side - Angle (between the sides) - Side
BC and CD are shown to be congruent with the markers that cross the line segments.
AC and AC are the same because they are the same.
The only things needed are the congruent angles between the sides.
The angles are ACD and ACB, because those are the angles between AC and BC and AC and CD.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Any negative (when there is only one of them) will be the least. negatives are smaller than positives.
A fraction is less than a whole number. So far what you have is
___ ___ 3/15 , - 24/30
So now which is bigger? 11 or 11.5
Which would you rather have? 11 dollars or 11 dollars and 50 cents. 11.5>11
The correct order is 11.5 11 3/15 - 24/30
