A very common type of red–green colorblindness in humans is caused by a mutation in a gene located on the X chromosome. Knowing
that the mutant allele is recessive to the wild type, what is the probability that the son of a woman whose father is colorblind is going to also be colorblind
According to the given information, the allele for the red-green colorblindness is inherited in an X linked recessive manner. Let's assume that the allele X^c is responsible for red-green colorblindness. The woman is normal but had a colorblind father (X^cY). Fathers give their X chromosomes to the daughters while their Y chromosome is transmitted to their sons. The sons get their X chromosomes from the mother.
The colorblind father has transmitted the X-linked allele for the red-green colorblindness to his daughter. Therefore, the genotype of the woman is X^cX. The woman would produce two types of eggs: 50 % with X^C and 50% with X. Therefore, 50% of sons of this woman would get X linked allele for the red-green colorblindness and would be affected by the disorder while the rest 50% of her sons will be normal.
Males would be more affected because they inherit only one X chromosome. Women would have to inherit two recessive genes to develop the trait, while men would have to inherit only one.
It should be 4. As we can see the relative reactivity of enzymes increase in skins a which has a basic rnvironment. Correct me if I’m wrong please. Thanks
