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Nutka1998 [239]
3 years ago
7

How do you graph inverse functions?

Mathematics
1 answer:
balu736 [363]3 years ago
3 0
A function and its inverse are reflected over the line y = x. To graph a function and its inverse, all you have to do is graph the function and then switch all x and y values in each point to graph the inverse.
You might be interested in
Write the expression (a^8)2/3 in simplest form.
Harrizon [31]

Answer:

2a^8/3

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope it's correct

3 0
3 years ago
Find the midpoint of the segment with the following endpoints. (10, 7) and (5, 4)
KatRina [158]

Answer:

\frac{15}{2} , \frac{11}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:-

To find the midpoint, the equation we use is:-

\frac{x1 +x2}{2} , \frac{y1 + y2}{2}

x1 = 10

x2 = 5

y1 = 7

y2 = 4

Substituting the values in the equation, we get:-

\frac{10+5}{2} , \frac{7+4}{2}

Coordinates of the midpoint---> \frac{15}{2} , \frac{11}{2}

8 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
You drive 70 miles per hour but then slow your speed by 15 miles per hour. You then return to your speed of 70 miles per hour. W
denis23 [38]
Driving 70 miles per hour.
Slow your speed means decrease in speed=
70+(-15)=70-15=55 miles/ hr
And then return to speed of 70 miles/hr means
add 15 miles to the speed.
We get
70+(-15)+15 =70 miles / hr
4 0
2 years ago
Suppose we have a regression line where the intercept is 0.24 and the slope is 0.87. Our variable of interest is x. Suppose the
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Margin of Error = Zcritical * Standard error

Zcritical at 5% confidence interval

Z0.065

5 0
3 years ago
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