Each number is the square of 2*the number, in other words
(1+1)²=4
(2+2)²=16
(3+3)²=36
(4+4)²=64
etc...
The probability of the success will be 0.3826.
<h3>What is binomial distribution?</h3>
Bernoulli's trials are those trials which end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures (with probability 1- p = q (say))
The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by

We have
n = 8
p = 0.1
q = 1 – 0.1 = 0.9
x = 1
Then we have
P(1) = ⁸C₁ x (0.1)¹ x (0.9)⁷
P(1) = 0.3826
Learn more about binomial distribution here:
brainly.com/question/13609688
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Answer:
M=(-2,-2)
J=(-1,-4)
K=(-5,-5)
L=(-7,-2)
Step-by-step explanation:
Use a factor tree break the number down i to its greatest common factor and break it down until it cant be divided anymore.
1,836.67
This the answer to the problem trust me im in 9th grade just trying to help out some kids