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Ghella [55]
3 years ago
14

The valuation of a financial asset is based on the concept of determining the present value of future cash flows that this finan

cial asset will accumulate.
True / False.
Business
1 answer:
Alina [70]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

To assess the value of an asset, it is important to determine if its future cash flows will make it worth for an investor to buy it in the present. The present value (PV) of a financial asset is the <em>value in the present</em> of all future cash flows the asset is expected to generate by using a discount rate.

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The Ascent, a mountain bicycle manufacturer, has been in the bicycle industry for a year now. The CEO wishes to better the compa
Alinara [238K]

Answer: e. generating alternative goals and plans.

Explanation:

The step in formal planning process is the CEO performing when he debates between opening a new branch and reducing the prices is referred to as generating alternative goals and plans.

Here, the CEO wants to increase the sales of the company and in an attempt to do that he's considering different alternatives in order to know and decide which one will be best for the company to undertake. This means he is generating alternative goals and plans.

Options A-D are wrong as the CEO isn't monitoring, controlling or implementing any plan. Option E is the right answer.

6 0
3 years ago
Carla Vista Pharmaceuticals entered into a licensing agreement with Zenith Lab for a new drug under development. Carla Vista wil
frez [133]

Answer:

Depends on the valuation method, it can be either:

A) $7,605,000

B) $8,450,000

Explanation:

A) If Carla Vista uses the "expected value method", then the transaction price of this arrangement should = $8,450,000 x 90% = $7,605,000

B) If Carla Vista uses the "most likely method", then the transaction price of this arrangement should = $8,450,000

7 0
3 years ago
The legal responsibility for the financial cost of another person's losses or injuries is referred to as:
Katyanochek1 [597]
The answer is B liablity
7 0
3 years ago
An aging of Bicycle Company's accounts receivable indicates that $20,000 is estimated to be uncollectible. If Allowance for Doub
V125BC [204]

Answer:

The adjustment to record bad debts for the period will be:

Debit Bad debt expense ($20,000 - $3,000)                    $17,000

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts                            $17,000

<em>(Bad debt expense required)</em>

Explanation:

Bicylce Company adopts the aging of accounts receivable method. The aging of accounts receivable is a criterion for apportioning the balance in the accounts receivable into different buckets (aging), for example: Not due, 1 - 30 days, 30 - 60 days, over 60 days, based on historical information and assigning a credit loss percentage to each bucket.

Since the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $3,000 credit, to calculate the required bad debt expense, we need to back out this amount from the amount that is deemed uncollectible, that is $20,000 - $3,000 = $17,000.

4 0
3 years ago
The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
fenix001 [56]
The "<span>strictness"</span><span> problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
</span>
Many supervisors will tend to rate every one of their subordinates reliably high or low. alludes to giving high evaluations or ratings, while strictness alludes to giving low appraisals or ratings. Central tendency alludes to giving normal scores.
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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