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3 years ago

11

Silver Co. has a $400 petty cash fund. At the end of the first month the accumulated receipts represent $63 for delivery expense

s, $207 for merchandise inventory, and $32 for miscellaneous expenses. The fund has a balance of $98. The journal entry to record the reimbursement of the account includes a:

1 answer:

lutik1710 [3]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Credit to cash for $302

Explanation:

Account Titles and Explanation Debit Credit

Delivery expenses $63

Miscellaneous inventory $207

Miscellaneous expense $32

Cash $302

(To record petty cash reimbursement)

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Your company manufactures two models of speakers, the Ultra Mini and the Big Stack. Demand for each depends partly on the price

Kipish [7]

Answer:

p1 = $259.53 p2 = $381.20

Explanation:

1. Find the revenue function.

This is a typical income maximization problem. Therefore, the first thing we should know is what are the revenues for each product.

Recall that the revenue is given by P * Q

1.a Find the revenue of the Ultra Mini (product 1):

$R_{1} = P_{1} Q_{1}$

$R_{1} =P_{1} (100,000 - 200P_{1} + 10P_{2} )$

$R_{1} =100,000P_{1} -200P_{1} ^{2} +10P_{2}P_{1}$

1.b Find the revenue of the Big Stack (product 2):

$R_{2} = P_{2} Q_{2}$

$R_{2} =P_{2} (150,000 + 10P_{1} - 200P_{2} )$

$R_{2} = 150,000P_{1+2} +10P_{1}P_{2} -200P_{2}^{2}$

2. Find the marginal revenues.

The revenue function must be derived from the price.

For product 1, we derive from P1:

$MR_{1} = 100,000 -400P_{1} +10P_{2}$

For product 2, we derive from P2:

$MR_{2} = 150,000 + 10P_{1} - 400P_{2}$

3. Create a system of linear equations in two unknowns

With the marginal revenue functions we create a system of linear equations in two unknowns (p1 and p2) and equal 0.

$100,000 - 400P_{1} +10P_{2} = 0\\150,000 + 10P_{1} -400P_{2} = 0$

4. Resolve the previous system

4.a. To make it easier, we can rethink the terms of the system like this:

$100,000 - 400P_{1} +10P_{2} = 0$ is the same as saying:

$P_{2} = \frac{-100,000 + 400P_{1} }{10}$

And $150,000 + 10P_{1} -400P_{2} = 0$ is the same as saying:

$P_{2}=\frac{150,000+10P_{1} }{400}$

Therefore:

$\frac{-100,000 + 400P_{1} }{10} =\frac{150,000+10P_{1} }{400}$

Notice that now we only have one unknown (P1).

4.b. In order to eliminate fractionals, we can multiply both terms by 400:

$\frac{400}{10} (-100,000 + 400P_{1} ) = \frac{400}{400} (150,000 + 10P_{1} )$

$(40)(-100,000+400P_{1}) =150,000+10P_{1}$

$-4,000,000+16,000P_{1} =150,000+10P_{1}$

4.c. We solve the equation, putting numbers on one side and unknowns on the other:

$-4,000,000-150,000=10P_{1} -16,000P_{1}$

$-4,150,000=-15,990P_{1}$

$\frac{-4,150,000}{-15,990} =P_{1}$

$P_{1} = $ 259.53$

4.d. Once P1 has been identified, we replace it in any of the terms of the original system of equations (those established in 4.a).

$P_{2}= \frac{-100,000+400(259.53)}{10}$

$P_{2} = 381.20$

5 0

3 years ago

The balance in the finished goods inventory account on july 1, 2006, was

11111nata11111 [884]

there really isntt an answer

4 0

3 years ago

Klivinich is a manufacturer of oral hygiene products. In addition to manufacturing and selling oral hygiene products, Klivinich

olga55 [171]

Answer:

Option C Achieve a competitive advantage

Explanation:

The reason is that anything brings an upperhand over the other competitors is competitive advantage. This might be due to product uniqueness or due to customer after sales services or anything in our product that the customer values more than the feature of other competitors. In this scenario, the advice of the K Company is valued by the customers and thats the reason they prefer its products because they give valuable advice with their products.

7 0

3 years ago

the butler county tax assessor determines that the market value of greg wilsons home is $123000. the rate of assessment in butle

MrRa [10]

In this case, the assessed value is 28% from the market value. So, we need to get 28% from $123,000.

Expressed in figures, we have;
*$123,000 x 0.28 = $34,440.

The assessed value of Greg's home is $34,440, which is 28% of $123,000.

7 0

2 years ago

You got asked to analyze a 5 year project for your firm. The project produces an annual revenue of $28,500, but requires an annu

hram777 [196]

Answer:

15,300

72.70%

Explanation:

After tax cash flow = (revenue - cost - depreciation) (1 - tax rate) + depreciation

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($20,000 - $5,000) / 5 = $3,000

($28,500 - $5,000 - $3000) x (1 - 0.4) + $3000 = $15,300

Terminal year cash flow = after tax cash flow + salvage value

$15,300 + $5,000 = $20,300

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated with a financial calculator

Cash flow in year 0 = $20,000.

Cash flow in year 1 - 4= $15,300

Cash flow in year 5 = $20,300

IRR = 72.70%

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.

8 0

3 years ago