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vladimir2022 [97]
3 years ago
10

What graph represents the inequality y≥2−2x?

Mathematics
2 answers:
babunello [35]3 years ago
7 0

y\geq2-2x\\\\\text{Let's the line}\ y=2-2x\\\\for\ x=0\to y=2-2(0)=2\to(0,\ 2)\\for\ x=1\to y=2-2(1)=0\to(1,\ 0)

\text{draw a line and shade above the line}\\\\\text{Look at the picture}

Anastaziya [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Graph is attached below

Step-by-step explanation:

To graph the given inequality , replace the inequality sign by = sign

y≥2−2x

y=2−2x

Now make a table , assume some random number for x and find out y

x         y=2-2x

0          2

1           0

2          -2

Now graph all the points (0,2) (1,0) (2,-2)

Now we do shading. For shading use test point (0,0)

plug in 0 for x and 0 for y

y\geq 2-2x

0\geq 2-2(0)

0\geq 2 is false

So shade the region that does not contain (0,0)

The graph is attached below

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Bippity boppity pls help me find this functions property
Semmy [17]

Answer:

Period ⇒ 40

Amplitude ⇒ 12

Mid-line ⇒ 32

Step-by-step explanation:

The table is counting by 4's and the period is the amount of space between 2 peaks. In this scenario, we can find the peaks by looking for two of the same highest value (44). We can see that x=40 has a value of 44 while the other is actually not shown because it would be located at x=0. Therefore the period is 40

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The amplitude can be found by using the following:

\frac{1}{2}|max - min|

Our maximum is 44 and our minimum is 20.

\frac{1}{2}|44 - 20|

\frac{1}{2}|24|

\frac{1}{2}(24)

The amplitude is 12

The amplitude is the distance from the peak to the mid-line. To find the mid-line, we can either subtract our amplitude from our maximum value (44) or add our amplitude to our minimum value (20)

44 - 12 = 32

20 + 12 = 32

Therefore our mid-line is y = 32

~Hope this helps!~

4 0
4 years ago
Help me please.....​
PolarNik [594]

Answer: I believe its Option 2

Step-by-step explanation: Sory if im wrong

8 0
3 years ago
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HELP ME WRITE AN EQUATION FOR THIS GRAPH
kramer

Answer:

lol

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
The following data was collected from a simple random sample of a population.
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

This problem is analogous to the extraction of 6 elements from a total of 10 elements. It's the same if they are marbles, chips, or in this case, people, as here we don't care about the order of the selection as we only are drawing a sample.

Thus, the problem implies solving the amount of possible combinations of 10 people if we take by 6. There is a formula for this and is:

10 C 6 = 10!(6!4!)

If we operate, knowing that for any number x, x!=x*(x-1)*(x-2)*...*1

10 C 6 = 10!(6!4!) = 10*9*8*7*6*...*1 / [(6*5*...*1) * (4*3*2*1)]

10 C 6 = 10*9*8*7*6! / [(6*5*...*1) * (4*3*2*1)]

We have a 6! multiplying and another dividing, so they get eliminated, and as 4*2=8 and 9=3*3

10 C 6 = 10*9*8*7*/ [(4*3*2*1)] = 10*3*3*8*7*/ [(8*3*1)]

We can eliminate the 8s and one of the 3s on the numerator with the one on the denominator:

10 C 6 = 10*3*7*/1 = 210/1= 210

So, option C

5 0
3 years ago
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-22.55 i think i used a cal but all u do is subtract the percentage with the number
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