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shutvik [7]
4 years ago
6

John Maynard Keynes created the aggregate expenditures model based primarily on what historical event? Question 9 options: econo

mic expansion of the 1920s Great Depression spectacular economic growth during World War II bank panic of 1907
Business
1 answer:
kirill [66]4 years ago
6 0

Answer: Great Depression

Explanation:

The Great Depression was an economic depression that took place worldwide which was as a result of the crash in the stock market. The Great Depression brought about reduction in GDP of countries due to the fall in demand of goods and services.

John Maynard Keynes created the aggregate expenditures model based primarily on the Great Depression. This method is used to calculate the GDP for a country.

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The following errors took place in journalizing and posting transactions:
kirill115 [55]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

The journal entry to correct the errors is given below:

a. Dr Cash $8400

Cr Account receivable $8400

b. Dr Supplies $2500

Cr Office equipment $2500

Dr Supplies $2500

Cr Account Payable $2500

Note that the first entry that's given in (b) above reverses the incorrect entry. On the other hand, the second entry simply records the correct entry.

6 0
3 years ago
Both the Onus ferry operator in the monopoly market and each of the Yuri ferry operators in the perfectly competitive market wil
Lisa [10]

Answer: Please refer to Explanation.

Explanation:

Monopoly.

The 2 reasons why the monopoly’s marginal revenue will always be less than its price are;

a) Even though Monopolies have very large influence on the prices of goods and services they offer, for a Monopoly to sell more goods, they generally have to lower their prices. This will lead to a situation where Marginal Revenue, which is the additional revenue made per additional unit sold will be less than Price because additional revenue for a new unit will be less than the last one because prices are dropped .

b) A Monopoly's demand schedule is downward sloping. This means that demand rises as prices drop. As prices drop therefore, more goods will be sold but the marginal revenue will be less because prices had to be dropped to get an additional unit to be sold. That unit therefore will bring in less revenue than the last unit.

Perfectly Competitive Market

In such a market, the seller is a Price Taker. This means that sellers in this market do not sell at a price that they want but rather at a price the market has established to be the Equilibrium. This is because of the high competition in the market. Since they are all selling at the same price, this means that every additional revenue they get is the same as the price the market charges. This means that Price equals Marginal Revenue in this market.

3 0
3 years ago
The purpose of the work opportunity tax credit is to encourage employers to hire individuals from specified target groups tradit
Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

true

Explanation:

  • The given statement is true here because the purpose of Work Opportunity Credit is to encourage employers to hire people who are facing employment barriers and are resulting in high unemployment.
  • And examples of the target group are unemployed ex-servicemen, food stamp recipients etc..
  • so this is true statement

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following should employers do to actively prevent workplace hazards? A. Completely eliminate all possible hazards.
wlad13 [49]
Your answer is D hope this helps
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When preparing the statement of cash flows using the indirect​ method, which statement is​ INCORRECT? A. Losses on the sale of l
ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

The correct answer is Option A.

Explanation:

A. Losses on the sale of longminusterm assets are subtracted from net income - This is incorrect because on losses on sale of an asset are usually added to the net income to avoid double-counting of income. Under the investing section of the cash flows, the proceed received on disposal is recorded there as inflow, if the losses realized on the disposal are subtracted, there would be a double-counting because the losses had already reduced the net income before.

B. Increases in current liabilities are added to net income - This is an inflow of cash, so it is usually added back.

C. Depreciation expense is added to net income - The explanation under Option A above applies but only that depreciation is a non-cash item, which already reduced the net income and it has to be added back to reinstate the net income.

D. Gains on the sale of longminusterm assets are subtracted from net income - Explanation under Option A applies.

3 0
3 years ago
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