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shutvik [7]
4 years ago
6

John Maynard Keynes created the aggregate expenditures model based primarily on what historical event? Question 9 options: econo

mic expansion of the 1920s Great Depression spectacular economic growth during World War II bank panic of 1907
Business
1 answer:
kirill [66]4 years ago
6 0

Answer: Great Depression

Explanation:

The Great Depression was an economic depression that took place worldwide which was as a result of the crash in the stock market. The Great Depression brought about reduction in GDP of countries due to the fall in demand of goods and services.

John Maynard Keynes created the aggregate expenditures model based primarily on the Great Depression. This method is used to calculate the GDP for a country.

You might be interested in
Confronted with the same unit cost data, a monopolistic producer will charge Group of answer choices
dsp73

Answer:

a higher price and produce a smaller output than a competitive firm

Explanation:

A monpolistically competitive firm is a firm that :

1. Sells differentiated products from other firms in the industry.

2. Has many buyers and sellers

3. Is a price maker

4. Has no barrier to entry or exist of firms

An example of a monpolistically competitive firm is a resturant.

A competitive firm is a firm that:

1. Sells identical goods with other firms in the industry.

2. Is a price taker . Prices are set by forces of demand and supply

3. Has many buyers and sellers

4. There are no barriers to entry or exist of firms.

When a monopolistic and competition firm are faced with the same unit cost, a monopolistic firm would aim to earn profit by increasing its price and reducing the quantity produced.

While a perfect competition would sell at the price set by the forces of demand and supply. The firm can increase the quantity produced in order to increase revenue.

A monopolistic firm is able to charge a higher price for its products while a perfect competition isn't.

5 0
4 years ago
Manufacturer's Inc. estimates that its interest charges for this year will be $700 and that its net income will be $3,000. Assum
just olya [345]

Answer:

TIE = 4,985.71

Explanation:

TIE = \frac{EBIT}{interest \: expense}

net income / (1 - tax-rate) = Earnings before taxes

3,000 / 0.7 = 4,285.71

Earnigns before taxes + interest = EBIT (earnings before interest and taxes)

4,285.71 + 700 = 4,985.71

7 0
3 years ago
what is the fastest way to grow your account (in followers and likes) on social media? this doesn't have to be "right" just say
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

I think is just be nice like thier pics leave nice comments cause if ur nice to them they might think Oh that was nice I'm gonna follow them and just put cute pics and things that are trendy so people will see them and always stay nice and polite

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ford had no presence in India before 2005, but it used the __________________ approach to open its own first manufacturing unit
Daniel [21]

Answer:

Letter A is correct. <u><em>Direct investment.</em></u>

Explanation:

Direct Investment or Foreign Direct Investment is defined as international investment for the purposes of creation and operations in another country. This type of investment may establish a majority or minority interest in companies that give the investor control over the operations and activities of that company.

In the case of the matter, it involves the Ford company whose direct investment was made in India to open its own business operations in India.

It is a type of complex investment, often used by companies wishing to establish a commercial presence in foreign countries, so it involves not only capital and interest, but management systems and technology.

3 0
3 years ago
Morgan Company reported the following information for the year ended December 31, 2015: Net income $ 600,000 Preferred dividends
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

Morgan’s earnings per share for 2015 is $6

Explanation:

To compute the earning per share, we have to use the formula which is shown below:

Earning per share = (Net income - declaration of preference dividend) ÷ (Average common shares outstanding)

= ($600,000 - $60,000) ÷ (90,000 outstanding shares)

= $6

Common dividends declared is not considered. Hence, it is not taken in the computation part.

6 0
4 years ago
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