Answer:
36p+4
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: -628
Step-by-step explanation:
F(140) = 212 - 6(140)
F(140) = 212 - 840
F(140) = -628
36000 over 1 to get the fraction of 36000
Answer:
The probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
Step-by-step explanation:
The gambler commences with $30, i.e. she played 3 games.
Let <em>X</em> = number of games won by the gambler.
The probability of winning a game is, <em>p</em> = 0.10.
The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution, with probability mass function:

Compute the probability of exactly one winning as follows:

Thus, the probability that she wins exactly once before she loses her initial capital is 0.243.
And what else? What's the question?