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pickupchik [31]
3 years ago
14

Please me with this!

Mathematics
1 answer:
aleksandr82 [10.1K]3 years ago
7 0
sin^{-1}(x) + cos^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2}) = \pi
sin[(sin^{-1}(x) + cos^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2})] = 0
sin(sin^{-1}(x)) \cdot cos(cos^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2})) + cos(sin^{-1}(x)) \cdot sin(cos^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2})) = 0

-\frac{x}{2} + \sqrt{1 - x^{2}} \cdot \sqrt{1 - (-\frac{1}{2})^{2}} = 0
\sqrt{1 - x^{2}} \cdot \sqrt{1 - (\frac{1}{4})} = \frac{x}{2}
\sqrt{1 - x^{2}} \cdot \sqrt{\frac{3}{4}} = \frac{x}{2}

\frac{\sqrt{3(1 - x^{2})}}{2} = \frac{x}{2}
\sqrt{3(1 - x^{2})} = x
3(1 - x^{2}) = x^{2}
3 - 3x^{2} = x^{2}
4x^{2} = 3

x^{2} = \frac{3}{4}
x = \pm \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}

Substitute both x-values in, and only x = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} works.

Thus, x = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} is your solution.
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