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Ilya [14]
2 years ago
13

Prove that if a is equivalent to 5 mod (8) and b is equivalent to 3 mod (8), then 8 divides ab+1

Mathematics
2 answers:
fiasKO [112]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

If a = 5 mod 8  and b = 3 mod 8

then ab = 5*3 mod 8 = 15 mod 8 = 7 mod 8.

ab + 1 =  8 mod 8 =  0 mod 8  so it is divisible by 8.

olga nikolaevna [1]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation contains the proof.

Step-by-step explanation:

a \equiv 5 (mod 8) \text{ means there is integer } k \text{ such that } a-5=8k.

b \eqiv 3 (mod 8) \text{ means there is integer } m \text{ such that } b-3=8m.

We want to show that 8 \text{ divides } ab+1.  So we are asked to show that there exist integer n \text{ such that } 8n=ab+1 \text{ or 8n-1=ab

So what is ab?

a-5=8k \text{ gives us } a=8k+5.

b-5=8m \text{ gives us } b=8m+5.

So back to ab....

ab

=(8k+5)(8m+5)

=64km+40k+40m+25  (I use foil to get this)

Factoring out 8 gives us:

=8(8km+5k+5m)+25

Now I could have factored some 8's out of 25.  There are actually three 8's in 25 with a remainder of 1.

=8(8km+5k+5m+3)+1

We have shown that there is integer n \text{ such that } ab=8n-1.

The integer I found that is n is 8km+5k+5m+3.

Therefore 8|(ab+1).

//

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