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Ghella [55]
3 years ago
11

A company enters into a short futures contract to sell 25,000 units of a commodity for 950 cents per unit. The initial margin is

$4,500 and the maintenance margin is $3,750. Calculate the futures price per unit that will allow $2,000 to be withdrawn from the margin account.
Business
1 answer:
Ksju [112]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$958

Explanation:

The amount that is excess in the initial margin account can be withdrawn. So we calculate the price increase that will result in a $2000 increase in initial margin.

The present price per unit of the commodity is 950 cents for 25,000 units

A unit increase of the price (which is in cents) will be 1/100= 0.01

Therefore an increase in price of 0.01 will lead to gain of 0.01 * 25,000= $250

Let's get price increase that will result in $2,000 gain

$250 = 1 unit price increase

$2,000 = x

x= (2000 * 1) ÷ 250= 8 units increase

Therefore the price at which $2,000 can be withdrawn is 950 + 8= 958 cents

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Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings, all of which are noncallable, are as
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

The question is missing the options which are below:

A Real risk-free rate differences.  

B Tax effects.  

C Default risk differences.  

D Maturity risk differences.  

E Inflation differences.  

The correct answer is option C,default risk differences.

Explanation:

Default risk is the increase in return given to an investor to compensate the investor for the likely losses that may arise due to the inability of the borrower to make funds available to the investor on the maturity date or even in required amount.

Different debt instruments have different default risk depending on their credit rating as rated by international rating agencies.Such rating is a function of many factors,which includes:

Balance sheet position

Profitability

Liquidity strength of the company

Macro-economic factors and some others.

Liquidity refers to the ability of the company to settle obligations such as repayment of bonds and interest  when due.

Invariably,liquidity has a higher impact in determining credit rating as well as default risk of an instrument.

3 0
3 years ago
Does anyone have a way or trick on using like blocked websites on a school chromebook?
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4 0
3 years ago
Suppose you purchase one share of the stock of Red Devil Corporation at the beginning of year 1 for $42.50. At the end of year 1
kkurt [141]

Answer:

17.76%

Explanation:

The computation of the time-weighted return on your investment is given below

But before that we have to do the following calculations

Year 1 = ($46.50 - $42.50) + 2 ÷ ($42.50) × 100 = 14.12%

Year 2 = ($54.50 - $46.50) + 2 ÷ ($46.50) × 100 = 21.51%

Now the time weighted return is

(1 + t)^2 = (1 + 14.12%) × (1 + 21.51%)

= 1.1412 × 1.2151

= √1.3867 - 1

= 17.76%

8 0
2 years ago
Following is information on an investment considered by Hudson Co. Assume the investment has a salvage value of $20,000. The com
zalisa [80]

Answer:

net present value is

$228,652.29-$200,000.00

=$28,652.29.

Explanation:

Net cashflows

Year 1= 100000

Year 2= 90000

Year 3= 95000 (75000+ 20000)

Totals= 285000

Present value at 12%

Formula for present value=

1/(1+r)^n

where r= interest rate

n= number of years

Year 1=1/(1+0.12)^1 =0.8929

Year 2=1/(1+0.12)^2= 0.7972

Year 3=1/(1+0.12)^3 =0.7118

Present value of net cash flows =

Present value × net cash flows.

Year 1= 0.8929 × 100000= $89,285.71

Year 2=0.7972 ×90000= $71,747.45

Year 3=0.7118×95000= $67,619.12

Totals = $228,652.29

Amount invested= $(200,000.00)

Net present value (NPV) is referred to as the difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows over a period of time. Net Present Value is used in capital budgeting and investment planning to analyze the profitability of a projected investment or project.

Therefore, net present value is

$228,652.29-$200,000.00

=$28,652.29.

7 0
3 years ago
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