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Savatey [412]
3 years ago
5

Dexter Industries purchased packaging equipment on January 8 for $72,000. The equipment was expected to have a useful life of th

ree years, or 18,000 operating hours, and a residual value of $4,500. The equipment was used for 7,600 hours during Year 1, 6,000 hours in Year 2, and 4,400 hours in Year 3. Required: 1. Determine the amount of depreciation expense for the three years ending December 31, by (a) the straight-line method, (b) the units-of-activity method, and (c) the double-declining-balance method. Also determine the total depreciation expense for the three years by each method. (Note: For DECLINING BALANCE ONLY, round the multiplier to five decimal places. Then round the answer for each year to the nearest whole dollar.) 2. What method yields the highest depreciation expense for Year 1? 3. What method yields the most depreciation over the three-year life of the equipment?
Business
1 answer:
Flauer [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<h2>Dexter Industries</h2>

1. Depreciation Expense for the three years ending December 31:

i) Straight-line Method:

Depreciation charge = (Cost - Residual Value)/Useful life

= Depreciable amount/useful life

Annual Depreciation = ($72,000 - $4,500)/3 = $22,500

Depreciation Expense:

Year 1      $22,500

Year 2     $22,500

Year 3     $22,500

ii) Units-of-Activity Method

Depreciable amount x (hours used/useful life in hours)

or Depreciable amount per hour x hours used

Depreciable amount = $72,000 - $4,500 = $67,500

Depreciation Expense:

Year 1      $28,500 (7,600/18,000 x $67,500) or 7,600 x $3.75

Year 2     $22,500 (6,000/18,000 x $67,500) or 6,000 x $3.75

Year 3     $16,500 (4,400/18,000 x $67,500) or 4,400 x $3.75

iii) Double-Declining-Balance Method

Steps:

Divide 100/useful life = 33.33333%.  This is the straight-line percentage.

Multiply this by 2, to obtain the percentage for double-declining method.

This gives 66.66666%

Depreciation Expenses:

Year 1 = $48,000 ($72,000 x 66.66666%)

Year 2 = $16,000 (($72,000 - $48,000) x 66.66666%))

Year 3 = $3,500  not $5,000 (($72,000 - $48,000 - $16,000) x 66.66666%))

The last year's depreciation cannot exceed the book value less the residual value.

1B) Total Depreciation Expense for the three years by each method:

i) Straight-line Method

Total Depreciation = $22,500 x 3 = $67,500

ii) Units-of-Activity Method

Total Depreciation = $67,500 ($28,500 + 22,500 + 16,500)

iii) Double-Declining-Balance Method

Total Depreciation = $67,500 ($48,000 + 16,000 + 3,500)

2. The method that yields the highest depreciation expense for Year 1:

The Double-Declining-Balance Method

3. The method that yields the most depreciation over the three-year life of the equipment:

None.  They yield the same total depreciation because of the presence of the residual value.

Explanation:

1) Cost of Equipment = $72,000

Useful Life = 3 years or 18,000 operating hours

Residual Value = $4,500

2) Depreciation is systematic reduction of the recorded cost of a long-term asset until the asset's value becomes zero or negligible.  It is an accounting estimate based on the entity's judgement.  It is a way of spreading the cost of a noncurrent asset in accordance with the accrual concept and matching principle over the periods that benefit from the long-term asset.  There are many methods which can be adopted.

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In January 2012, one US dollar was worth 50 Indian rupees. Suppose that over the next year the value of the Indian rupee decreas
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

59% - a)increase - b)decrease

Explanation:

First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.

Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).

Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).

With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.

3 0
3 years ago
Privett Company Accounts payable $33,264 Accounts receivable 67,719 Accrued liabilities 6,039 Cash 20,980 Intangible assets 39,9
xz_007 [3.2K]

The total amount of quick assets is equal to $119,232. therefore, Option B is the correct statement.

<h3>What are Quick Assets?</h3>

Quick assets encompass cash available or current assets like accounts receivable that may be transformed to cash with minimum or no discounting.

Companies have a tendency to use the short assets to cover short-time period liabilities as they arrive up, so speedy conversion into cash (excessive liquidity) is critical.

Inventories and prepaid expenses aren't quick assets due to the fact they may be hard to transform into cash, and deep discounts are sometimes needed to do so.

The amount of quick assets is equal to Accounts receivable plus Cash plus Marketable securities.

Quick assets = $67,719 + $20,980 + $30,533

Quick assets = $119,232

Hence, the total amount of quick assets is equal to $119,232. Option B is the correct statement.

learn more about quick assets:

brainly.com/question/11209470

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5 0
2 years ago
LBC Corporation makes and sells a product called Product WZ. Each unit of Product WZ requires 3.5 hours of direct labor at the r
swat32

Answer:

The correct option is D

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Explanation:

The labour budget is the product of the standard labour cost per unit and the budgeted production in units

Labour budget = standard labour cost× production budget in unit

The production budget can bed determined by adjusting the sales budget for closing and opening inventories.  

Production budget = Sales budget +closing inventory - opening inventory

Production budget = 39,000 + 100 -200 = 38,900 units

Labour budget = $14.50× 3.5× 38,900 = $1,974,175

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By offering it at low initial rate, the people who borrow money would experience low burden if they plan to return the money within short period of time. This would make them much more likely to obtain a loan, and it also would make the bank that create the loan program looks better compared to their competitors.

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