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weeeeeb [17]
3 years ago
9

Explain why you would make one of the addenda a ten number when solving an addition problem

Mathematics
1 answer:
QveST [7]3 years ago
7 0
For example: if there are two tens and 15 ones, you could take another ten out of the ones. this makes the adding less complicated
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Y=3x-4
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I have a geometry pre course test I need help
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Answer:

What do you need help with, comment

6 0
3 years ago
1+4=5 2+5=12 3+6=21 8+11=?
ziro4ka [17]
Okay so we just need to find out the pattern...
in this case the pattern is adding..
we did 
1 + 4 = 5 
2 + 5 = 12
we figure this one out by adding 2 and 5 twice so it look like this 
2 + 5 + 5 = 12 
now moving on to our next one 
3 + 6 = 21 
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8 0
3 years ago
Please help.<br> Algebra.
Akimi4 [234]

1. A

Since parallel lines never cross, then there can be no intersection; that is, for a system of equations that graphs as parallel lines, there can be no solution. This is called an "inconsistent" system of equations, and it has no solution.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

2. C

That's right. If a system of equations has a solution, then their graphs intersect,  and the point where they intersect is the solution because it's the point that  satisfies each equation in the system.

Straight-line graphs with the same slope are parallel lines, and they never intersect,  which is another way of saying they have no solution.

8 0
3 years ago
If 1 inch is 500 miles, then 4 inches is how many miles?
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

2,000 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given:

1 inch=500 miles

This can be rewritten as:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}

This is representative of a unit rate, as we have a 1 in the denominator. To calculate the number of miles in 4 inches, simply multiply the unit rate by 4:

\frac{500 miles}{1inch}*4=

\frac{2000 miles}{4 inches}

This can rewritten as:

4inches=2000miles

Therefore, there are 2,000 miles in 4 inches.

-

We can check our solution by simplifying the fraction \frac{2000 miles}{4 inches} by dividing both 2000 and 4 by 4 to see if we achieve the unit rate:

\frac{500 miles}{1 inch}

Since this is in fact the unit rate, our solution is correct!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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