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Degger [83]
3 years ago
14

You want to create an electric field vector E = < 0, 5 104, 0> N/C at location < 0, 0, 0>. Where would you place a p

roton to produce this field at the origin?
Physics
1 answer:
atroni [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1.696 × 10^(-7) m on the y axis.

Explanation:

We are given the electric field as;

E = < 0, 5 × 10⁴, 0> N/C

This is written in (x, y, z) co-ordinates. So it means that it lies on the y-axis.

So,

E = 5 × 10⁴ N/C in the y direction.

Formula for Electric field is;

E = kq/r²

where;

k is a constant with a value of 8.99 x 10^(9) N.m²/C²

q is charge on the proton = 1.6 × 10^(-19) C

r is the distance

Thus, making r the subject gives;

r = √(kq/E)

Plugging in the relevant values gives;

r = √(8.99 × 10^(9) × 1.6 × 10^(-19)/(5 × 10⁴))

r = 1.696 × 10^(-7) m on the y axis.

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3 years ago
If the electron has half the speed needed to reach the negative plate, it will turn around and go towards the positive plate. Wh
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

 v = -v₀ / 2

Explanation:

For this exercise let's use kinematics relations.

Let's use the initial conditions to find the acceleration of the electron

            v² = v₀² - 2a y

when the initial velocity is vo it reaches just the negative plate so v = 0

           a = v₀² / 2y

now they tell us that the initial velocity is half

          v’² = v₀’² - 2 a y’

          v₀ ’= v₀ / 2

at the point where turn v = 0              

          0 = v₀² /4  - 2 a y '

          v₀² /4 = 2 (v₀² / 2y)  y’

          y = 4 y'

          y ’= y / 4

We can see that when the velocity is half, advance only ¼ of the distance between the plates, now let's calculate the velocity if it leaves this position with zero velocity.

         v² = v₀² -2a y’

         v² = 0 - 2 (v₀² / 2y) y / 4

         v² = -v₀² / 4

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We can see that as the system has no friction, the arrival speed is the same as the exit speed, but with the opposite direction.

7 0
3 years ago
Who is the leader of the party's national committee
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3 years ago
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The coefficient of linear expansion of ordinary glass is three times that of Pyrex glass. An ordinary glass rod and a Pyrex glas
DochEvi [55]

Answer:

b. 3 times

Explanation:

Lets take

Coefficient for ordinary glass = α₁

Coefficient for pyrex glass = α₂

 Given that α₁ = 3 α₂

Initial length of both glasses are equal = L

Change in the temperature is also same .= ΔT

We know that change in the length  given as

ΔL =  L α ΔT

Therefore

\dfrac{\Delta L_1}{\Delta L_2}=\dfrac{L\alpha_1\Delta T}{L\alpha_2\Delta T}

\dfrac{\Delta L_1}{\Delta L_2}=\dfrac{3\alpha_2}{\alpha_2}

ΔL₁ = 3ΔL₂

Therefore change in the length of original glass is three time of pyrex glass.

b. 3 times

6 0
3 years ago
A block of mass 11.0 kg slides from rest down a frictionless 38.0° incline and is stopped by a strong spring with
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

11.72 mm

Explanation:

The gravitational potential energy equals the potential energy of the spring hence

PE_{gravitational}=PE_{spring}

mgh=0.5kx^{2} where m is the mass of object, g is the acceleration due to gravity, h is the height, k is the spring constant and x is the extension of the spring

mgdsin\theta=0.5kx^{2} where \theta is the angle of inclination and d is the sliding distance

Making x the subject then

x=\sqrt {\frac {2mgdsin\theta}{k}}

Substituting the given values then

x=\sqrt{\frac {2\times 11\times 9.81\times 3\times sin 38}{2.9\times 10^{4}}}= 0.117240716\approx 11.72 mm

8 0
3 years ago
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