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vazorg [7]
3 years ago
11

On the graph of f(x) = sin x and the interval (-2pi,0), for what value of x does f(x) achieve a minimum? Choose all

Mathematics
1 answer:
V125BC [204]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

x = -pi/2

Step-by-step explanation:

hello :

f(x)=sin x     x⋲(-2pi,0)

the derivate for f is : f'(x) = cosx

f(x) achieve a minimum when : f'(x) =0

cosx = 0  genral solution is :

x = pi/2 +kpi    .. k in Z

but :  x⋲(-2pi,0) so : x = -pi/2.....(k = -1)

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A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
3 years ago
Which is an equation of the line containing the points (2,5) and (4,4) in standard form?
guapka [62]
First, find the slope of the line thru these 2 pts:

         5-4
m = --------- = -1/2
         2 -4 

Use the slope-intercept formula y = mx + b:

5 = (-1/2)(2) + b.  Then the y-intercept is 5 + 1, or 6:  y = (-1/2)x + 6

Multiplying this entire result (3 terms) by 2 results in 2y = -x + 12, or

x + 2y = 12 (answer)
6 0
3 years ago
the polynomial y = x^{5} + x^{3} - x^{2} - 1 factors into (x^{2} + 1) (x^{3} - 1). what is the multiplicity of the root (x^{3} -
Anestetic [448]

Answer:

The multiplicity of the root is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly, we need to understand what multiplicity is

By multiplicity, we simply refer to the number of times we have the certain root repeating itself

From the factorization, each of the given roots were only repeated once

That indicates that the given multiplicity is 1

6 0
3 years ago
angle P and angle Q are complementary. The measure of angle Q is 33.5°. What is the measure of angle P?​
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

56.5 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Because complementary angles are when their sum is 90, you get the equation:

P + Q = 90

Since Q is 33.5,

P + 33.5 = 90

Subtracting 33.5 from both sides,

P = 56.5

6 0
3 years ago
I need to answer these questions ASAP! Will give brainiest and helpful!
garik1379 [7]
8) 1.40 per ounce
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4 0
3 years ago
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